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NEW QUESTION 43
What can you do with shared hierarchies?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Provide reusable hierarchies for drilldown in a CUBE without star join
• B. Enable SQL SELECT statements to access hierarchies
• C. Provide reusable hierarchies for drilldown in a CUBE with star join
• D. Access hierarchies created in external schemas

Answer: B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 44
What are possible consequences of unfolding?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. SQL compilation time increases
• B. Results are read from static cache
• C. Query processing time improves
• D. Count-distinct results are incorrect

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 45
In a calculation view, why would you implement an SQL expression?Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. To generate hierarchies
• B. To generate a calculated column
• C. To convert currencies
• D. To generate a restricted column
• E. To define a filter

Answer: B,D,E
 
NEW QUESTION 46
You create a table function to remove historic records, sum the current total weekly working hours for each employee, and update the personnel table with the results. The deployment of the table function fails.Which of the following could be a valid reason?

• A. You did NOT define a valid table type.
• B. Your function includes a TRUNCATE statement.
• C. Your function refers to a scalar function.
• D. You did not define at least one input parameter.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 47
Why do you use parameter mapping in a calculation view?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. To convert the data types of input parameters
• B. To assign variables to one or more attributes
• C. To push down filters to the lowest level calculation views
• D. To pass variable values to external value help views

Answer: C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 48
......

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NEW QUESTION 30
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

• A. successfully during the first attempt.
• B. without causing an unplanned system outage.
• C. by the security administration team.
• D. successfully within the expected time frame.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 31
Della works as a project manager for Tech Perfect Inc. She is studying the documentation of planning of a project. The documentation states that there are twenty-eight stakeholders with the project. What will be the number of communication channels for the project?

• A. 0
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3

Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
According to the twenty- eight stakeholders. Communication channels are paths of communication with stakeholders in a project. The number of communication channels shows the complexity of a project's communication and can be derived through the formula shown below:
Total Number of Communication Channels = n (n-1)/2
where n is the number of stakeholders.
Hence, a project having five stakeholders will have ten communication channels. Putting the value of the number of stakeholders in the formula will provide the number of communication channels. Putting the value of the number of stakeholders in the formula will provide the number of communication channels:
Number of communication channel = (n (n-1)) / 2
= (28 (28-1)) / 2
= (28 x 27) / 2
= 756 / 2
= 378
 
NEW QUESTION 32
Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

• A. Activation of control audits
• B. Multi-factor authentication
• C. Role-based access controls
• D. Acceptable use policies

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 33
Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?

• A. Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register
• B. Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control
• C. Completion of the latest internal audit
• D. Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 34
......

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NEW QUESTION 32
Where can the results of a Time Series Analysis be used?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. During XYZ segmentation in the Manage ABC/XYZ Segmentation Rules app
• B. In the Microsoft Excel add-in, where you can use them to limit and filter your planning views
• C. In Global (multi-stage) Inventory Optimization to calculate time-phased Recommended Safety Stock Outputs
• D. In the Manage Forecast Error Calculations app - Demand Planning app to calculate the Forecast Error CV

Answer: A,C
 
NEW QUESTION 33
You need to create time periods for the time profile in a planning area.What should you be aware of when running the Create Time Periods application job?

• A. In the Parameter Section of the application job, choose the Time Profile ID and Planning Area.
• B. The assigned Planning Area must be active.
• C. This application job can be run for multiple time profiles at once.
• D. A time profile has to be activated so that the application job can proceed.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 34
SAP IBP ensures interoperability with which applications?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. User management in SAP Success Factors
• B. Financial Planning in SAP Analytics Cloud
• C. Salesforce Sales Cloud
• D. Business Network in SAP Ariba

Answer: B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 35
......

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NEW QUESTION 24
Identify four correct history categories when setting up compensation history. (Choose four.)

• A. Non-Recruiting Payments
• B. Recruiting Payments
• C. Salary
• D. Other Compensation
• E. Stock
• F. Payroll Elements

Answer: A,B,D,E
Explanation:
The Compensation History summary table displays four categories of compensation: Base Pay, Other Compensation (one-time payments), Stock, and Recurring Payments. Compensation history automatically displays base pay and stock grants. You must add additional recurring nonbase pay and one-time compensation to history.
 
NEW QUESTION 25
Your customer's compensation has an itemized structure. The company wants to increase the Cost of Living allowance of the employees living in the New Jersey area by 3% to compensate for the increased living costs there. Which feature of Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation can be used to achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)

• A. Budget Pools
• B. Plan Eligibility
• C. Salary Component
• D. Action and Action Reasons
• E. Plan Access

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 26
An organization provides compensation such as salary and bonus earnings for its workers. It also tracks commissions and company-paid taxes for them.
Which two statements are true when configuring the items? (Choose two.)

• A. Formula will require you to specify the Legislative Data Group as the Additional Data Entry.
• B. Payroll Balance will require you to specify the Legislative Data Group as the Additional Data Entry.
• C. Benefit Balance will require you to specify the Legislative Data Group as the Additional Data Entry.
• D. Element Entry will require you to specify the Legislative Data Group as the Additional Data Entry.

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 27
......

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NEW QUESTION 37
A customer's enterprise architect has identified requirements around caching, queuing, error handling, alerts, retries, event handling, etc. The company has asked the Salesforce integration architect to help fulfill such aspects with their Salesforce program.
Which three recommendations should the Salesforce integration architect make?
Choose 3 answers

• A. Message transformation and protocol translation should be done within Salesforce.
  Recommend leveraging Salesforce native protocol conversion capabilities as middle watools are NOT suited for such tasks
• B. Transform a fire-and-forget mechanism to request-reply should be handled bymiddleware tools (like ETL/ESB) to improve performance.
• C. Provide true message queueing for integration scenarios (including orchestration,process choreography, quality of service, etc.) given that a middleware solution is required.
• D. Event handling processes such as writing to a log, sending an error or recovery process, or sending an extra message, can be assumed to be handled by middleware.
• E. Event handling in a publish/subscribe scenario, the middleware can be used to route requests or messages to active data-event subscribers from active data-event publishers.

Answer: C,D,E
 
NEW QUESTION 38
Northern Trail Outfitters has a registration system that is used for workshops offered at its conferences. Attendees use a Salesforce community to register for workshops, but the scheduling system manages workshop availability based on room capacity. It is expected that there will be a big surge of requests for workshop reservations when the conference schedule goes live.
Which integration pattern should be used to manage the influx in registrations?

• A. Batch Data Synchronization
• B. Remote Process Invocation-Request and Reply
• C. Remote Call-In
• D. Remote Process Invocation-Fire and Forget

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 39
Universal Containers (UC) currently owns a middleware tool and they have developed an API-led integration architecture with three API tiers. The first tier interfaces directly with the systems of engagement, the second tier implements business logic and aggregates data, while the third tier interfaces directly with systems of record. Some of the systems of engagement will be a mobile application, a web application, and Salesforce.
UC has a business requirement to return data to the systems of engagement in different formats while also enforcing different security protocols.
What should an Integration Architect recommend to meet these requirements?

• A. Enforce separate security protocols and return formats at the second tier of the API-led architecture.
• B. Enforce separate security protocols and return formats at the first tier of the API-led architecture.
• C. Leverage an Identity Provider solution that communicates with the API tiers via SAML
• D. Implement an API gateway that all systems of engagement must interface with first.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 40
......

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NEW QUESTION 34
You have a bucket and a VPC defined in AWS. You need to ensure that the bucket can only be accessed by the VPC endpoint. How can you accomplish this?
Please select:

• A. Modify the IAM Policy for the bucket to allow access for the VPC endpoint
• B. Modify the route tables to allow access for the VPC endpoint
• C. Modify the security groups for the VPC to allow access to the 53 bucket
• D. Modify the bucket Policy for the bucket to allow access for the VPC endpoint

Answer: D
Explanation:
This is mentioned in the AWS Documentation Restricting Access to a Specific VPC Endpoint The following is an example of an S3 bucket policy that restricts access to a specific bucket, examplebucket only from the VPC endpoint with the ID vpce-la2b3c4d. The policy denies all access to the bucket if the specified endpoint is not being used. The aws:sourceVpce condition is used to the specify the endpoint. The aws:sourceVpce condition does not require an ARN for the VPC endpoint resource, only the VPC endpoint ID. For more information about using conditions in a policy, see Specifying Conditions in a Policy.

Options A and B are incorrect because using Security Groups nor route tables will help to allow access specifically for that bucke via the VPC endpoint Here you specifically need to ensure the bucket policy is changed.
Option C is incorrect because it is the bucket policy that needs to be changed and not the IAM policy.
For more information on example bucket policies for VPC endpoints, please refer to below URL:
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/example-bucket-policies-vpc-endpoint.html The correct answer is: Modify the bucket Policy for the bucket to allow access for the VPC endpoint Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts
 
NEW QUESTION 35
A company has a set of EC2 instances hosted in AWS. These instances have EBS volumes for storing critical information. There is a business continuity requirement and in order to boost the agility of the business and to ensure data durability which of the following options are not required.
Please select:

• A. Use EBS volume replication
• B. Use EBS volume encryption
• C. Use lifecycle policies for the EBS volumes
• D. Use EBS Snapshots

Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation
Data stored in Amazon EBS volumes is redundantly stored in multiple physical locations as part of normal operation of those services and at no additional charge. However, Amazon EBS replication is stored within the same availability zone, not across multiple zones; therefore, it is highly recommended that you conduct regular snapshots to Amazon S3 for long-term data durability.
You can use Amazon Data Lifecycle Manager (Amazon DLM) to automate the creation, retention, and deletion of snapshots taken to back up your Amazon EBS volumes.
With lifecycle management, you can be sure that snapshots are cleaned up regularly and keep costs under control.
EBS Lifecycle Policies
A lifecycle policy consists of these core settings:

• Resource type-The AWS resource managed by the policy, in this case, EBS volumes.

• Target tag-The tag that must be associated with an EBS volume for it to be managed by the policy.

• Schedule-Defines how often to create snapshots and the maximum number of snapshots to keep. Snapshot creation starts within an hour of the specified start time. If creating a new snapshot exceeds the maximum number of snapshots to keep for the volume, the oldest snapshot is deleted.
  Option C is correct. Each Amazon EBS volume is automatically replicated within its Availability Zone to protect you from component failure, offering high availability and durability. But it does not have an explicit feature like that.
  Option D is correct Encryption does not ensure data durability
  For information on security for Compute Resources, please visit the below URL
  https://d1.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/Security/Security Compute Services Whitepaper.pdl The correct answers are: Use EBS volume replication. Use EBS volume encryption Submit your Feedback/Queries to our Experts
   
  NEW QUESTION 36
  An application developer is using an AWS Lambda function that must use AWS KMS to perform encrypt and decrypt operations for API keys that are less than 2 KB Which key policy would allow the application to do this while granting least privilege?
  
  
  

• A. Option B

• B. Option C

• C. Option D

• D. Option A

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 37
......

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NEW QUESTION 53
Drag and drop the feature descriptions from the left onto the correct UCS Fabric Interconnect modes on the right.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

 
NEW QUESTION 54
Drag and drop the feature descriptions from the left onto the correct UCS Fabric Interconnect modes on the right.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

 
NEW QUESTION 55
An engineer is building a data center network with VXLAN EVPN. The requirement is to use multicast for the broadcast, unknown unicast, and multicast replication.
Which two VNI to multicast group mapping methods must be used to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

• A. many VNI to many multicast groups
• B. one VNI to one multicast group
• C. one NVE to many multicast groups
• D. many NVE to one multicast group
• E. many VNI to one multicast group

Answer: C,E
 
NEW QUESTION 56
A cloud service provider provisioned four active/active data centers in various locations within the country at 50 miles between each data center. The data centers must provide redundant network infrastructure and always be available to customers.
Which two data center design steps must be used to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

• A. Implement active cluster in data centers 1 and 2 and backup in 3 and 4.
• B. Provide application hosting services to customers from the closest data center.
• C. Use asynchronous replication between data centers 1 and 2.
• D. Deploy database services in data center 1 and application layer to other data centers.
• E. Configure application data replication to all backup data centers.

Answer: B,E
 
NEW QUESTION 57
Drag and drop the components from the left onto the descriptions on the right that indicate what occurs to Fibre Channel fabric when that component fails.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

 
NEW QUESTION 58
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NEW QUESTION 28
Which two statements are correct about External ID?
Choose 2 answers

• A. External IDs fields are always unique
• B. External IDs must be Text fields
• C. External IDs are always searchable
• D. External IDs can be used to upsert records

Answer: C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 29
Universal containers uses a legacy system to receive and handle Level 1 service requests, and Salesforce service Cloud for Level2 requests and above, Cases will be pushed from the legacy system to Service Cloud by a nightly batch process. Once the cases are closed in SF, the case needs to be updated in the legacy system as soon as possible.
How should the Technical Architect recommend that case status be updated in the legacy system?

• A. Use Apex callout to send case status from Salesforce to the legacy system.
• B. Write an Apex web service returning case status, to be called from the legacy system.
• C. use Outbound messages to send status updates from Salesforce to the legacy system.
• D. Use a middleware tool to pull case status from Salesforce and push to the legacy system at regular intervals.

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 30
Universal Containers is integrating their Salesforce platform with their on-premise ERP system. As part of the test class design DML operations are to be performed before making the test callout.
What capability does Salesforce provides to facilitate this?

• A. Perform the DML operation within the Test.StartTest and Test.Stop Test and make the callout within Test.StartTest and Test.StopTest block.
• B. Perform the DML operation outside the Test.StartTest and Test.StopTest and make the callout with the Test.StartTest and Test.StopTest block.
• C. Perform the DML operation inside the Test.StartTest and Test.Stop Test and make the callout outside the Test.StartTest and Test.Stop Test block.
• D. Perform the DML operation outside the Test.StartTest and Test.StopTest and make the callout outside of the Test.StartTest and Test.StopTest block.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 31
Universal Containers is currently doing User Acceptance Testing for small changes in a Developer sandbox.
Users are complaining that allow release to production, some functionality is broken and performance is often negatively impacted.
What is causing these complaints?

• A. Users should be testing in a Partial Sandbox in order to replicate Production functionality and performance characteristics.
• B. Users should be testing with date loaded into the Developer sandbox in order to replication Production functionality and performance, characteristics.
• C. Users should be testing in a Full Sandbox in order to replicate Production functionality and performance characteristics.
• D. Users should be testing in a Developer Pro sandbox in order to replicate Production functionality and performance characteristics.

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 32
A company needs to be able to send data from Salesforce to a home grown system behind a corporate firewall.
The data needs to be pushed only one way and doesn't need to be sent in real time. The average volume is 2 million records per day.
What shouldan integration architect consider when choosing the right option in building the integration between the external system and Salesforce?

• A. Due to high volume of records, number of concurrent requests can hit the limit for the REST API call to external system.
• B. Due to high volume of records, the external system will need to use a BULK API Rest endpoint to connect to salesforce.
• C. Due to highvolume of records, salesforce will need to make a REST API call to external system.
• D. Due to high volume of records, a third party integration tool is required to stage records off platform.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 33
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NEW QUESTION 41
A Marketing Cloud admin wants to configure a new keyword for an upcoming SMS campaign. After entering the desired keyword CELEBRATION, the admin notices the keyword is unavailable.
What issue could the admin be facing?

• A. Keyword is used within another business unit
• B. Keyword is a reserved word
• C. Keyword fails to meet content standards
• D. Keyword has too many characters

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 42
Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) has a franchise model which allows locally-owned stores to operate under the corporate umbrell a. They are required by corporate policy to email each franchisee a monthly statement, but the statement cannot be publicly accessible Which Marketing Cloud product should NTO purchase as a solution?

• A. Content Syndication
• B. Email Rachments
• C. Distributed Sending
• D. Analytics Builder

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 43
Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) is concerned about unauthorized API access to their Marketing Cloud account.
Which feature would NTO enable to assist in reducing threats from malicious API attacks?

• A. Single Sign on Authentication
• B. Advanced Audit Trail
• C. Field Level Encryption
• D. IP Allowlist

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 44
Which two statements are correct about Send Logging?
Choose 2 answers

• A. SQL Query Activities can reference Send Logs in combination with system data views.
• B. Send Log data extensions are archived automatically based on retention settings.
• C. AMPscript can be used to pull data from Send Logs for use within emails.
• D. A business unit can support up to three Send Logs.

Answer: A,C
 
NEW QUESTION 45
A Marketing Cloud admin is asked by the marketing team to ensure a default Header and Footer be added to emails.
Where under Setup could this be created?

• A. Content Builder Settings
• B. Emails Studio Settings
• C. Campaign Settings
• D. Account Settings

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 46
......

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NEW QUESTION 37
What does the -p flag do with the ansible-galaxy command?

• A. Instructs ansible-galaxy to install the role permanently to persist a reboot.
• B. Allows the user to provide a role path other than the default to be used when installing a role.
• C. Allows ansible-galaxy to push a role to a target.
• D. Allows ansible-galaxy to pull a role down to the local server.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 38
Install and configure ansible
User sandy has been created on your control node with the appropriate permissions already, do not change or modify ssh keys. Install the necessary packages to run ansible on the control node. Configure ansible.cfg to be in folder /home/sandy/ansible/ansible.cfg and configure to access remote machines via the sandy user. All roles should be in the path /home/sandy/ansible/roles. The inventory path should be in
/home/sandy/ansible/invenlory.
You will have access to 5 nodes.
node1.example.com
node2.example.com
node3.example.com
node4.example.com
node5.example.com
Configure these nodes to be in an inventory file where node I is a member of group dev. nodc2 is a member of group test, node3 is a member of group proxy, nodc4 and node 5 are members of group prod. Also, prod is a member of group webservers.
**Answer: **
Explanation:
See the Explanation for complete Solution below.
Explanation
In/home/sandy/ansible/ansible.cfg
[defaults]
inventory=/home/sandy/ansible/inventory
roles_path=/home/sandy/ansible/roles
remote_user= sandy
host_key_checking=false
[privilegeescalation]
become=true
become_user=root
become_method=sudo
become_ask_pass=false
In /home/sandy/ansible/inventory
[dev]
node1 .example.com
[test]
node2.example.com
[proxy]
node3 .example.com
[prod]
node4.example.com
node5 .example.com
[webservers:children]
prod
 
NEW QUESTION 39
What is the primary difference between the shell and command module?

• A. The shell module sets up a shell environment and the command module only runs the provided command.
• B. There is no difference.
• C. The shell module sets a default shell whereas the command module executes a shell command.
• D. The shell module is for executing shell commands, and the command module is for Ansible internal commands.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 40
......

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NEW QUESTION 34
A system administrator has noticed that static routes are missing after rebooting a system. What is the most likely reason for this?

• A. The administrator has failed to configure the routes in the inet0 device with the chdev command.
• B. The administrator has failed to configure the routes in the lo0 device with the chdev command.
• C. The administrator has failed to run the cfgmgr command before rebooting the systems.
• D. The administrator has failed to configure the routes with the route add command.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 35
Which command should be used to perform a graceful shutdown and reboot of an AIX LPAR?

• A. halt
• B. bosboot
• C. reboot
• D. shutdown

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 36
When a user logs in. the processing of their .profile is very slow. Which issue could contribute to the problem?

• A. A slow NFS mount for their home directory.
• B. The user's home file system is full.
• C. The PATH variable contains non-existent directories.
• D. Network issues between the user location and the system.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 37
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NEW QUESTION 38
Which of the following release versions are supported when migrating to theSAP Ariba Cloud Integration Gateway solution?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question

• A. Ariba Networkadapter for SAP NetWeaver 9.0
• B. Ariba Network adapter for SAP NetWeaver 8.0
• C. Ariba Network adapter for SAP NetWeaver 7.0
• D. Ariba Network adapter for SAP NetWeaver 6.0

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 39
What is the authorization object required for executing a special program or report in the SAP Ariba Cloud Intergration Catagory?

• A. ARBCIG_PRG
• B. ARBCIG_RFC
• C. ARBCIG_SPR
• D. ARBCIG_CLS

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 40
You are defining an RFC destination in your SAP system for Ariba Network Integration in direct connectivity deployment.
What credentials should you enter for basic authentication under the logon and Security tab?

• A. AribaNetwork user ID and password
• B. SAP user ID and password
• C. CIG user ID and password
• D. SAP Cloud Connector user ID and password

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 41
You need to make a specific material available for stock check and stock reservation in the catalog syndication feature of SAP Ariba ...
Which custom category fields or supplementary attributes are required to be uploaded as type definitions?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Plant
• B. Purchasing org
• C. In Stock indicator
• D. Storage location
• E. Purchasing group

Answer: A,D,E
 
NEW QUESTION 42
Which of the following activities can you perform withSAP Ariba Cloud Integration Gateway? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Integrate SAP systems with all SAP Ariba applications
• B. Define your own interfaces with any third-party application
• C. Integrate different SAP Ariba solutions with each other
• D. Achieve"do-it-yourself" integration withautomated testing

Answer: A,D
 
NEW QUESTION 43
......

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NEW QUESTION 52
A company manages more than 1,000 Amazon EC2 instances running Amazon Linux 2 in multiple VPCs. A SysOps administrator must change the statically configured DNS server IP address on all the EC2 instances.
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• A. Run a shell script to update the corporate DNS IP address on each EC2 instance.
• B. Update the Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) of the EC2 instances to configure the updated corporate DNS IP address.
• C. Develop an AWS Lambda function to update the corporate DNS IP address on all the EC2 instances.
• D. Use the AWS Systems Manager Run Command to update the corporate DNS IP address on all the EC2 instances.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 53
A user has enabled session stickiness with ELB. The user does not want ELB to manage the cookie; instead he wants the application to manage the cookie. What will happen when the server instance, which is bound to a cookie, crashes?

• A. ELB will throw an error due to cookie unavailability
• B. The session will not be sticky until a new cookie is inserted
• C. The session will be sticky and ELB will route requests to another server as ELB keeps replicating the Cookie
• D. The response will have a cookie but stickiness will be deleted

Answer: B
Explanation:
With Elastic Load Balancer, if the admin has enabled a sticky session with application controlled stickiness, the load balancer uses a special cookie generated by the application to associate the session with the original server which handles the request. ELB follows the lifetime of the application-generated cookie corresponding to the cookie name specified in the ELB policy configuration. The load balancer only inserts a new stickiness cookie if the application response includes a new application cookie. The load balancer stickiness cookie does not update with each request. If the application cookie is explicitly removed or expires, the session stops being sticky until a new application cookie is issued.
 
NEW QUESTION 54
An application runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The instance in an Auto Scaling group that terminates unhealthy instances. The Auto Scaling group is configured to determine the health status of EC2 instances using both EC2 status checks and ALB checks. The Development team wants to analyze the unhealthy instances before termination.
What should the SysOps Administrator do to accomplish this?

• A. Configure the ALB health check to restart instances instead of terminating them.
• B. Use an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling lifecycle hook to pause instance termination after the instance has been removed from service.
• C. Configure an AWS Lambda function to take a snapshot of all instance before they are terminated.
• D. Implement Amazon CloudWatch Events to capture lifecycle events and trigger an AWS Lambda function for remediation.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 55
......

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NEW QUESTION 48
Properly installing managed packages helps prevent conflicts with customizations made by customers and partners.
What functionality should be used to set up packages?

• A. Help setting
• B. Namespace
• C. Description
• D. Allow sharing

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 49
An app Builder creates an Account validation rule on the Industry field that will throw an error if the length of the field is longer than 6 characters. Another App Builder creates a workflow rule with a field update that sets the Industry field to Technology whenever the Billing City field is set to San Francisco. What will happen the next time a sales person saves an Account with a Billing City of San Francisco?

• A. The record will not save and the validation rule's error message will be displayed
• B. The record will save and the Industry field will change to Technology
• C. The record will save but the Industry field will not change to Technology
• D. The record will not save and no error message will be displayed

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 50
A Service Coordinator (SC) for Ursa Major Solar (UMS) does a final review of work orders owned by a technician for a specific region before the records are submitted for an invoice. Before closing out the work order, the SC needs to modify data or remove attachments that were added by mistake. The SC also needs access to any other related records owned by the technician.
What solution would provide the required access, given a private data model?

• A. Give the SC a permission set with the Modify All Data system permission.
• B. Put the SC in the role hierarchy above the technicians whose work orders they review.
• C. Create a workflow rule that updates records owned by technicians in that region with the SC.
• D. Change work order access on the SC's profile to 'Modify AIl.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 51
Which sandbox is used for performance testing?

• A. Full
• B. Partial
• C. Developer Pro
• D. Developer

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 52
......
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NEW QUESTION 54
What happens when computers on a private network attempt to connect to the Internet through a Cisco router running PAT?

• A. An IP address is assigned based on the priority of the computer requesting the connection.
• B. The router uses the same IP address but a different TCP source port number for each connection.
• C. The router assigns a unique IP address from a pool of legally registered addresses for the duration of the connection.
• D. The router selects an address from a pool of one-to-one address mappings held in the lookup table.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/asa/asa82/configuration/guide/nat_staticpat.html
Static PAT translations allow a specific UDP or TCP port on a global address to be translated to a specific port on a local address. That is, both the address and the port numbers are translated.
Static PAT is the same as static NAT, except that it enables you to specify the protocol (TCP or UDP) and port for the real and mapped addresses. Static PAT enables you to identify the same mapped address across many different static statements, provided that the port is different for each statement. You cannot use the same mapped address for multiple static NAT statements.
Port Address Translation makes the PC connect to the Internet but using different TCP source port.
 
NEW QUESTION 55
In which major section of Ads Manager (found in the top navigation bar) would you prepare mockup ad campaigns?

• A. Engage Customers
• B. Advertise
• C. Manage Business

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 56
Refer to the exhibit.

SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?

• A. It will flood the frame out all ports.
• B. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
• C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
• D. It will drop the frame.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit.

When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

• A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
• B. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.
• C. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
• D. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval,
Dead interval and AREA numbers
 
NEW QUESTION 58
What impacts audience size?

• A. Image creative
• B. Video creative
• C. Schedule
• D. Targeting

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 59
......
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NEW QUESTION 30
What Application Lifecycle Management solution is included in the SAP Enterprise Support offering for
RISE with SAP S/4HANA Cloud, private edition?

• A. SAP Solution Manager
• B. SAP Focused Run
• C. SAP Cloud ALM
• D. SAP Focused Build

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 31
In a new implementation, how is data migrated directly from an SAP ERP system to RISE with SAP S/4HANA Cloud, private edition?

• A. The Software Update Manager (SUM) tool migrates the legacy database from the SAP ERP source system to RISE with SAP S/4HANA Cloud, private edition.
• B. Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) tools are used to migrate data from the SAP ERP source system to RISE with SAP S/4HANA Cloud, private edition (through a separate SAP HANA staging
  database).
• C. Point-to-point integration connects the SAP ERP source system to the SAP S/4HANA Migration Cockpit.
• D. A Remote Function Call (RFC) connects the SAP ERP source system to the SAP S/4HANA Migration Cockpit.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 32
How is data migrated directly from an SAP ERP system to RISE with SAP S/4HANA Cloud, private edition?

• A. The Software Update Manager (SUM) tool migrates the legacy database from the SAP ERP source
  system to RISE with SAP S/4HANA Cloud, private edition.
• B. Extract, Transform, and Load (ETL) tools are used to migrate data from the SAP ERP source system to
  RISE with SAP S/4HANA Cloud, private edition (through a separate SAP HANA staging database).
• C. SAP Integration Suite connects the SAP ERP source system to the SAP S/4HANA Migration Cockpit.
• D. A Remote Function Call (RFC) connects the SAP ERP source system to the SAP S/4HANA Migration
  Cockpit.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 33
What Application Lifecycle Management solution is included in the SAP Enterprise Support offering for RISE with SAP S/4HANA Cloud, private edition?

• A. SAP Solution Manager
• B. SAP Focused Run
• C. SAP Solution Builder
• D. SAP Cloud ALM

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 34
......

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質問 49
What is the valid server type within SDDC Manager that should be used when registering an external server for the file-based backup of VMware NSX Managers?

• A. NFS
• B. SFTP
• C. HTTPS
• D. FTP

正解: B
 
質問 50
An administrator is tasked with deploying a new workload domain into an existing VMware Cloud Foundation environment. Which two storage types are supported? (Choose two.)

• A. NFS v2
• B. VMFS on iSCSI
• C. VMFS on FC
• D. vSAN
• E. SMB3.0

正解: B,E
 
質問 51
An administrator creates a vSphere with Tanzu namespace.
Which two limits can be defined in namespace? (Choose two )

• A. Limits on storage IOPS
• B. Limits on NIOC
• C. Limits on CPU
• D. Limits on memory
• E. Limits on load balancer

正解: C,D
 
質問 52
......

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Valid NS0-003 Practice Questions.

NEW QUESTION 21
You have a centralized data center running NetApp ONTAP. Your business is deploying a new IoT solution directly managed by the Azure IoT hub. You want to store data in the cloud for use with data analytics.
Which NetApp solution would accomplish this task?

• A. Cloud Backup Service
• B. Cloud Secure
• C. Cloud Insights
• D. Cloud Volumes ONTAP

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 22
Which two NetApp features encrypt the storage data? (Choose two.)

• A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
• B. NetApp Storage Encryption (NSE)
• C. Encrypted File System (EFS)
• D. NetApp Volume Encryption (NVE)

Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Reference:
https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-concepts%2FGUID-394BC638-DADB-4CA4-8C8E-D7F942F30458.html
 
NEW QUESTION 23
Which service does Cloud Volumes ONTAP tiering use?

• A. Azure Queue Storage
• B. Azure Blob
• C. Azure Data Lake Storage
• D. Azure Stack

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 24
What are two main benefits when configuring Advanced Disk Partitioning (ADP) on an AFF or FAS system? (Choose two.)

• A. Optimises storage capacity.
• B. Decreases disk failure rate.
• C. Reduces the RAID parity overhead.
• D. Increases deduplication efficiencies.

Answer: A,C
 
NEW QUESTION 25
Which management software allows you to provision Dynamic Disk Pools?

• A. ONTAP
• B. SANtricity
• C. Element
• D. StorageGRID

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 26
......

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NEW QUESTION 33
In the dual-system hot-standby network, the service interface works at Layer 3, the upstream and downstream are connected to the router, the firewall and the upstream and downstream run an OSPF process, which provides the dual-system hot-standby burden sharing network, and the firewall provides the NAT function. The following Incorrect planning deployment advice:

• A. Allows the packet filtering policy between the domain where the heartbeat port Eth-Trunk is located and the local domain, so as to allow heartbeat packets to pass.
• B. For consistency of uplink and downlink status, the firewall's uplink and downlink interfaces are added to the same Link-Group.
• C. Enable HRP to adjust OSPF COST function.
• D. Configure a static black hole route (network segment route) in the NAT address pool, import it into OSPF and advertise it.

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 34
In NGFW, to use the RBL blacklist, which of the following key options need to be configured by the network administrator?

• A. DNS server
• B. Reply Code
• C. RBL server IP address
• D. SMTP server IP address

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 35
A customer network topology is shown in the figure.

An LZTP tunnel is established between the PC and the FW, with the PC as the client and the FW as the LNS side. After the administrator completes the configuration, it is found that the L2TP tunnel cannot be established successfully.
Execute the command debug l2tp packet in the user view to enable the debug switch, and see the following debug information:
USG %%01L2TP/8/L2TDBG (d): L2TP::Check SCCRQ MSG Type 1
USG %%01L2TP/8/L2TDBG (d): L2TP::Parse AVP Protocol version: 100
USG %%01L2TP/8/L2TDBG (d): L2TP::Parse AVP Framing capability: 1
USG %%01L2TP/8/L2TDBG (d): L2TP::Parse AVP Bearer capability, value: 0
USG %%01L2TP/8/L2TDBG (d): L2TP::Parse AVP Firmware revision, value: 1200
USG %%01L2TP/8/L2TDBG (d): L2TP::Parse AVP Host name, value: maple-54b160e59
USG %%01L2TP/8/L2TDBG (d): L2TP::requested Host isn't in the define l2tp group, refuse the requested
USG %%01L2TP/8/L2TDBG (d): L2TP::Clear Calls On Tunnel ID=1 Reason=1
Based on the above information, which failure analysis option is correct?

• A. LNS remote tunnel name configuration is incorrect
• B. The Virtual Template interface is not added to the security domain
• C. L2TP Group tunnel authentication failed
• D. Client LNS IP address configuration error

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 36
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NEW QUESTION 48
Which statement is true regarding API flows exported as BAR files from an instance of the IBM App Connect Designer?

• A. They use the Connector API to stage API assemblies to an IBM API Connect catalog
• B. They must be packaged in an immutable Docker integration image
• C. They can include actions for a callable flow
• D. They can be exported as a BAR file for deployment in an integration server

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 49
What is the IBM App Connect Enterprise Toolkit?

• A. A web user interface for accessing integration server resources
• B. A high availability management tool
• C. A graphical user interface for message flow development
• D. A command-line interface for App Connect integration

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 50
A new proxy API needs to be created, security added, and published to the Sandbox catalog. Which is the correct sequence of steps that should be taken to perform these tasks?

**Answer: **
Explanation:

 
NEW QUESTION 51
......