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NEW QUESTION 30
What are the characteristics of assertion tickets? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. They have an unconfigurable validity of 2 minutes
• B. They are used for system-to-system communication
• C. They are used for user-to-system trusted login
• D. They are transmitted as cookies

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 31
How is the role concept applied for modeled authorizations based on Core Data Services (CDS) views?

• A. CDS roles are defined in the WHERE clause when calling a CDS view in Open SQL
• B. CDS roles are defined for CDS views in Object Navigator
• C. CDS roles are mapped to the CDS view in the access rules
• D. CDS roles are defined for the CDS views and implicitly applied to each user

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 32
Which features does SAProuter provide?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question

• A. HTTP conversion into HTTPS connections
• B. Password-protected connections
• C. Filtered and logged network connections
• D. Load-balanced RFC connections

Answer: B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 33
Which transaction or report can be used to audit profile assignments in an SU01 user master record? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question

• A. SM20N
• B. RSUSR002
• C. ST01
• D. RSUSR100

Answer: B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 34
......

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NEW QUESTION 23
The causes of systemic secondary insult to injured brain include all of the following except:

• A. Hypoxaemia
• B. Hypercapnia
• C. Hypothermia

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 24
An 82-year-old man has woken up with incoherent speech and difficulty in finding the right words. Exam: good comprehension.
Which anatomical site is most likely to be affected?

• A. Wernicke's area
• B. Pons
• C. Broca's area
• D. Parietal cortex
• E. Midbrain

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 25
At what CD4 count should anti-retroviral treatment commence in asymptomatic HIV patients?

• A. Below 500/mm3
• B. Below 200/mm3
• C. Below 50/mm3
• D. Below 100/mm3

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 26
......

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NEW QUESTION 53
What are the available methods through which you can fill staging tables in the SAP HANA database of the target system? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. SAP Smart Data Access
• B. SAP SQL Anywhere
• C. Customer's ETL tools
• D. XML templates
• E. SAP HANA Smart Data Integration (SDI)

Answer: A,C,E
 
NEW QUESTION 54
In the scope item SAP EWM Integration - Delivery-Based Production Integration (2VM), when are the components issued from the warehouse in the SAP EWM system?

• A. When the status of the production order is set to technically complete ("TECO")
• B. When the components are backflushed
• C. When the warehouse worker confirms the outbound warehouse task
• D. When the production operator confirms the operation that consumes the components

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 55
In the SAP scenario SAP EWM Integration - Outbound Processing to Customer (2VK), during which activity is the location for picking the stock determined?

• A. Creation of the picking wave
• B. Confirmation of the warehouse task
• C. Creation of the outbound delivery order
• D. Creation of the warehouse task

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 56
What does SAP S/4HANA Cloud interact with in the scope item Warehouse Stock Handling (2YL)?

• A. Non-SAP warehouse management system
• B. Mobile warehouse management application
• C. Material Flow System (MFS)
• D. On-premise SAP EWM system

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 57
You process customer returns in SAP Best Practice SAP EWM Integration - Customer Returns (2VO). What functionality do you use to assign the warehouse order to a warehouse worker?

• A. Order Management
• B. Capacity Management
• C. Labor Management
• D. Resource Management

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 58
......

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NEW QUESTION 34
A VMware Workspace ONE administrator and the Information Security Officer reported that the Unified Access Gateway (UAG) front-end network is compromised. The compromised device was reconfigured to bypass the UAG.
Why did this action fail in a two-NIC deployment?

• A. The UAG combines layer 2 firewall rules with layer 7 Unified Access Gateway security
• B. The UAG combines layer 3 firewall rules with layer 7 Unified Access Gateway security
• C. The UAG combines layer 4 firewall rules with layer 7 Unified Access Gateway security
• D. The UAG combines layer 5 firewall rules with layer 7 Unified Access Gateway security

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 35
Which type of certificate is uploaded to VMware Workspace ONE Access for Android Single Sign-On setup?

• A. Intermediate
• B. Self-signed
• C. Trusted SSL
• D. Root

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 36
Which two Workspace ONE UEM services require persistence on the load balancers to support an environment of 25,000 devices? (Choose two.)

• A. AirWatch Cloud Connector
• B. Device Services
• C. Secure Email Gateway
• D. Workspace ONE Intelligence
• E. Dell Factory Provisioning

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 37
What is the proper sequence of steps to integrate Unified Access Gateway with VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence?

• A. Download the Device Root Certification from the UEM admin console under Tunnel Settings Upload the fie m the Unified Access Gateway admin console Complete the setting by Opt In/Out toggle
• B. Download the credentials file from VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence Upload the credentials file n the Unified Access Gateway admin console Complete the setting by Opt In/Out toggle
• C. Download the Device Root Certification from the UEM admin console under Tunnel Settings Upload the fie m the VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence admin console Complete the setting by Opt In/Out toggle
• D. Download the credentials file from Unified Access Gateway
  Upload the credentials file n the VMware Workspace ONE Intelligence admin console Complete the setting by Opt In/Out toggle

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 38
An organization wants to prevent users from connecting to VMware Horizon desktop or application pools from a Horizon Pod deployed on their internal network unless the user selects the Horizon pool from the Unified Catalog of their Workspace ONE Access shared SaaS tenant.
Which additional setting must the organization administrator configure?

• A. Enable the Virtual App Service on al Unified Access Gateway systems that allow users to connect to Horizon pools from the Horizon Pod
• B. Set "Delegation of authentication to VMware Horizon (SAML 2.0 Authenticator)" to "Allowed" on all Horizon Connection Servers in the Horizon Pod
• C. Configure the Workspace ONE Access tenant as a SAML 2.0 authenticator on all Horizon Connection Servers in the Horizon Pod
• D. Enable the VMware Tunnel on all Unified Access Gateway systems that allow users to connect to Horizon pools from the Horizon Pod

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 39
......

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NEW QUESTION 31
A network administrator notices that there are a high number of queries to the LDAP server. The mail logs show an entry "550 Too many invalid recipients | Connection closed by foreign host." Which feature must be used to address this?

• A. DHAP
• B. LDAP
• C. SBRS
• D. SMTP

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-
0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011010.html
 
NEW QUESTION 32
Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)

• A. Message filters can be configured only from the CLI.
• B. Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface.
• C. The filterconfig command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters.
• D. The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters.
• E. Message filters configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/213940-esa-using-a- message-filter-to-take-act.html
 
NEW QUESTION 33
What is the order of virus scanning when multilayer antivirus scanning is configured?

• A. The Sophos engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.
• B. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the Sophos engine scans for viruses second.
• C. The McAfee engine scans for viruses first and the default engine scans for viruses second.
• D. The default engine scans for viruses first and the McAfee engine scans for viruses second.

Answer: B
Explanation:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa13-
0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_13-0.pdf P.402
 
NEW QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit.

Which SPF record is valid for mycompany.com?

• A. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.2 -all
• B. v=spf1 a mx ip4:10.1.10.23 -all
• C. v=spf1 a mx ip4:199.209.31.21 -all
• D. v=spf1 a mx ip4:172.16.18.230 -all

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 35
Which two actions are configured on the Cisco ESA to query LDAP servers? (Choose two.)

• A. relay
• B. reject
• C. delay
• D. route
• E. accept

Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-0/user_guide_fs/ b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_011010.html
 
NEW QUESTION 36
......
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NEW QUESTION 45
Scenario:A Citrix Administrator configures an access control list (ACL) to block traffic from the IP address
10.102.29.5:
add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srcIP 10.102.29.5
A week later, the administrator discovers that the ACL is no longer present on the Citrix ADC.
What could be the reason for this?

• A. The administrator did NOT run the apply ACL command.
• B. The simple ACLs remain active for only 600 seconds.
• C. The simple ACLs remain active for only 60 seconds.
• D. The Citrix ADC has been restarted without saving the configurations.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 46
A Citrix Administrator wants to customize the look of the landing page presented to users during the authentication process on Citrix ADC.
Which nFactor component should the administrator modify in this scenario?

• A. Pass-through factor
• B. Logon Schema
• C. Next factor
• D. NoAuth Policy

Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference:
authentication/nfactor-authentication-configuring.html
 
NEW QUESTION 47
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a Citrix Gateway virtual IP to allow incoming connections initiated exclusively from web browser sessions.
Which advanced policy will accomplish this?

• A. HTTP.REQ.HEADER("User-Agent").CONTAINS("CitrixReceiver")
• B. REQ.HTTP.HEADER User-Agent NOTCONTAINS CitrixReceiver
• C. REQ.HTTP.HEADER User-Agent CONTAINS Chrome/78.0.3904.108 Safari/537.36
• D. HTTP.REQ.HEADER("User-Agent").CONTAINS("Mozilla")

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 48
A Citrix ADC is connected with one network interface to the client network and another to the server network, ensuring that all traffic flows through the appliance.
Which type of deployment is this?

• A. Bridge mode
• B. Direct server return
• C. One-arm
• D. Two-arm

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 49
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NEW QUESTION 30
According to IASB's Conceptual Framework, an expense is a decrease in economic benefits in the form of
I.
outflows.
II.
decreases of assets.
III.
incurrences of liabilities.
IV.
contributions to equity holders.

• A. I, II and IV only
• B. I, II and III only
• C. II, III and IV only
• D. I, III and IV only

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 31
Which one of the following would be included in the statement of financial position?

• A. depreciation
• B. distribution costs
• C. deferred tax
• D. gains on property valuations

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 32
Restrictions on the scope of a specific accounting standard are stated in

• A. that specific standard.
• B. the IASB's Conceptual Framework.
• C. various Statements of Accounting Concepts (SACs) issued by the AASB.
• D. the explanatory materials provided by the AASB.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 33
Which one of the following is an advantage of current purchasing power accounting?

• A. It provides a clear use of indices which approximates the measurement of value.
• B. It supposes that value of net assets clearly reflects general goods and services are bought once assets were released.
• C. It enables raw data to be just easily verifiable but not auditable.
• D. It provides a stable monetary unit that values profit and capital.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 34
......