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NEW QUESTION 31
Which of the following are common item categories that can be defined in the ItemCategory.csv? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Consignment
• B. Material
• C. Subcontracting
• D. Service

Answer: B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 32
where can users insert parallel approvers in the approval flow of an SAP Ariba custom form?

• A. At any point in the approval flow
• B. At any point after their own approval node
• C. Only after their own approval node
• D. Only at beginning of theapproval flow

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 33
which main data elements does SAP Ariba buying require from thecustomer's existing systems? NOTE: there are 2 correct answers to this question

• A. user groups
• B. Historical spend data - Unit of measure
• C. payment terms
• D. suppliers

Answer: B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 34
which features from SAP Ariba solutionscan be integrated with SAP Ariba guided buying? Note: there are 3 correct answers to this question

• A. Templates from SAP Ariba sourcing
• B. Catalogs from SAP Ariba Buying and invoicing
• C. Preferred suppliers from SAP Ariba supplier lifecycle and performance
• D. Exception rules from SAP Arbia invoice management
• E. Contract attributes from SAP Ariba contracts

Answer: A,B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 35
......

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NEW QUESTION 54
To help ensure application stability and scalability, during which two of the following times do you use Log Analyzer (PLA) to test Pega applications? (Choose Two)

• A. User Acceptance Testing (UAT)
• B. Throughout the development cycle
• C. Performance and stress testing
• D. Immediately before deployment

Answer: A,C
 
NEW QUESTION 55
What does the orange triangle in this screen indicate?

• A. The data page's connector is not properly configured
• B. The data page source system is simulated
• C. The service could not be reached
• D. The service returned an error

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 56
You want to create a new minor version of an application ruleset to add a new feature to your application. The new feature will be made available to users in a phased rollout.
How do you update the application to add the new ruleset version?

• A. Lock and roll the existing ruleset, and create a new application version.
• B. Create a new application version and add the new ruleset version as a production ruleset.
• C. Create a branch ruleset and a new application, and add the branch ruleset to the application.
• D. Lock and roll the existing ruleset, and update the existing application version.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 57
In your purchasing application, you use a decision table with vendor discount codes. You want to delegate the decision table.
In which ruleset do you save the decision table to allow delegation?

• A. Production
• B. Integration
• C. Application
• D. Organization

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 58
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• A. Connectors establish a link to a service on another system.
• B. Connectors use a listener that runs in the background.
• C. Connectors require a REST service to function.
• D. Connectors can be referenced from data transforms.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 59
......
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NEW QUESTION 23
What must you add to the application to schedule an SAP Lumira, designer edition document? Note:
There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. The Comments technical component
• B. A script to generate the PDF document on the On-Scheduling event
• C. A script to generate the PDF document on the On-Startup event
• D. The Export PDF technical component

Answer: B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 24
When you position a component, what is the mandatory setting for two of the six layout options?

• A. 0
• B. Default
• C. Auto
• D. N/A

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 25
To off auto refresh of a story in SAP Lumira compose ta,
where do you make changes to set this option?

• A. Preview
• B. Story Selector
• C. Chart Builder
• D. Page Settings
• E. Content Panel

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 26
What must you do to create a scorecard component? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Define the Row Scope.
• B. Define Columns and Group Headers.
• C. Configure the CSS Class.
• D. Assign a Data Source.
• E. Set the Name Property.

Answer: A,B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 27
Which ofthe following is an old name of SAP Lumira?

• A. Data Visualization Intelligence
• B. Dashboard
• C. Web Intelligence
• D. Visual Intelligence

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 28
......

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NEW QUESTION 43
What is hyperautomation?

• A. A strategic approach that rapidly identifies and automates as many processes as possible using advanced technologies such as AI and machine learning.
• B. Repetitive tasks that can be divided into two primary groups for test automation and robotic process automation.
• C. A series of programmed task actions, such using assembly-line robotic arms to place a product in a box.
• D. A technique for automating discrete tasks as standalone functions.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 44
Which workspace type can NEVER be accessed by other users?

• A. External
• B. Private
• C. My Workspace
• D. Public

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 45
Where can an end user work on Forms?

• A. Monitor Workflow application
• B. MyInbox
• C. ChatBot
• D. Process workspace

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 46
......

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NEW QUESTION 33
Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present- The network administrator is informed (hat during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expect. A group of users from a few sites have reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Which metrics can a network administrator verify in the QoE screen to determine the overall health of Underlay and Overlay?

• A. Jitter, Speed, Latency.
• B. Jitter, Packet Loss, Latency.
• C. Jitter Packet Loss, Speed.
• D. Packet Loss, Latency, Speed.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 34
Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for all required branches, the administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches- The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certain that configurations have been complete. The administrator also observed that several users are reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources. The administrator wants to ensure that all sites can talk to each other and all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

The tunnel from the Dallas site to the Seattle hub is not coming up.
What are two things that should be checked to determine the issue? (Choose two.)

• A. Hub WAN Interface might be behind a firewall.
• B. Spoke Edge and Hub Edge have a mismatched certificate.
• C. Spoke Edge and Hub Edge are two different Edge models.
• D. Dynamic Branch to Branch is not enabled.

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 35
Scenario 3:
After resolving numerous connectivity Issues throughout the various branch sites, connectivity between applications and users is finally present. The network administrator is informed that during certain tests, applications are not performing as they are expected to. Users report that call quality has not fully improved and that some of their calls either drop or have poor voice quality where the conversation is breaking up. Other users are noticing that file transfers are slower than expect. A group of users from a few sites have reported slowness in accessing internal and external applications.
Exhibit.

Users at a remote office are complaining about poor performance with certain applications. The network administrator has already verified the configuration is correct.
Which two parameters should the administrator review to troubleshoot this issue? (Choose two.)

• A. Look under Monitor, check Business priority tab
• B. Check the flows to verify which Business Policy the traffic of interest is matching
• C. Change the bandwidth measurement under WAN Overlay Advanced Settings
• D. Check the underlay network (bandwidth, latency, jitter, packet loss)

Answer: A,D
 
NEW QUESTION 36
Scenario 2:
After completing the branch activation activities for ail required branches, the network administrator attempts to test connectivity between the various branches and between the hubs and branches. The administrator notices a lack of connectivity despite being certconfigurations have been complete. The administrator also observed that several reporting intermittent connectivity to some of the applications they are accessing. Other users are reporting no access to these applications. Other users at some of the branches claim they cannot get to certain public resources. The administrator wants to ensure thatall sites can talk to each other and all resources are accessible.
Exhibit.

A network administrator has been told that Dallas needs some high-availability in the event that the SD-WAINJ Edge goes offline for whatever reason. There is limited budget so the administrator must use the other available CE router as a fallback mechanism. The administrator will use VRRP to provide HA. When configuring VRRP, the SD-WAN Edge service restarted.
What caused this behavior?

• A. The administrator failed to specify the Edge Type as a VeloCloud Cluster.
• B. The device is faulty and will need a replacement.
• C. The administrator failed to specify the Edge Type as a VeloCloud Active Standby Pair.
• D. This is an expected behavior.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 37
......
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NEW QUESTION 35
An administrator tries to open iLO interlace from HPE OneView Instead of being automatically logged in a login prompt displays Where should you start the troubleshooting process?

• A. At the iLO interface to verify whether the ILO Advanced license is properly applied
• B. At HPE OneView Interface to verify whether the server is In the maintenance mode
• C. At the iLO interface to verify whether the SSO certificate is removed from an iLO.
• D. At HPE OneView Interface to verify whether the iLO processor is disabled

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 36
Your customer has 6 logical enclosures spanning 18 HPE Synergy frames. The customer needs to add one more logical enclosure based on 5 HPE Synergy frames How will this change impact the customer environment?

• A. The customer has to expand the management ring capacity either by adding HPE Composer 2 modules or adding memory to reach 128GB per module.
• B. The customer can add a new logical enclosure to an existing setup once all required licenses are added lo HPE OneView and associated with the new frames.
• C. The customer has to create a new management ring for new logical enclosure because the maximum number of frames m a single management ring is reached.
• D. The customer can add a new logical enclosure to the existing setup because the maximum number of logical enclosures in a single management ring is not reached.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 37
You configured a vVoI datastore using HPE Storage integration Pack for VMware vCenter.
Which storage object should you check using SSMC to verify whether vVol datastore is configured property?

• A. Storage Container
• B. App Volume Set
• C. Virtual Volume Set
• D. virtual Volume

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 38
A logical interconnect group can span on multiple HPE Synergy frames for which interconnect type?

• A. HPE Virtual Connect SE 100 Gb F32 Module tor Synergy
• B. HPE virtual Connect SE 32 Gb FC Module for Synergy
• C. Brocade 32GB Fibre Channel Switch Module for HPE Synergy
• D. HPE Synergy 12 Gb SAS Connection Module

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 39
......

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NEW QUESTION 26
Introduction to Cloud Security Posture Management uses which of the following to connect, communicate, and collect information from cloud accounts and third party tools?

• A. APIs
• B. HTML
• C. SmartConsole
• D. CLI

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 27
What is the key component in securing and managing any environment?

• A. Security Gateway
• B. Security Management Server
• C. Security Access
• D. Security Policy

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 28
To travel between spokes, non-transitive traffic uses ________ to allow Ipv4 and IPv6 traffic to reach a spoke network

• A. Peering
• B. the Northbound hub
• C. a VTI
• D. the Southbound hub

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 29
Which Pillar includes the following principals

• Experiment more often

• Go Global in minutes-

• Use serverless architectures

• A. Cost Optimization

• B. Performance Efficiency

• C. Operational Excellence

• D. Reliability

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 30
The integration of cloud resources into the Security Policy requires establishing a secure connection between_________________

• A. The SDDC and the Security Management Server
• B. CloudGuard Security Gateways and the Security Management Server
• C. The SDDC and CloudGuard Security Gateways.
• D. The SDDC, CloudGuard Security Gateways, and the Security Management Server

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 31
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NEW QUESTION 46
What functionality is available with "Basic Shipping" in SAP S/4HANA Supply Chain for transportation management? Note: There are 3 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Transportation planning based on outbound deliveries
• B. Transportation planning based on sales orders
• C. Transportation execution without event management
• D. Transportation planning based on inbound deliveries
• E. Package building

Answer: A,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 47
How does the continuous move function influence the carrier selection process?

• A. It combines two freight orders with the same carrier in one freight order
• B. It deducts a discount from the carrier selection planning costs for neighboring freight orders
• C. It narrows down the available carriers to only carriers that allow continuous moves
• D. It moves the dates of the freight orders to avoid idle time

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 48
Which of the following can be used as origin of condition?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. BRFplus decision table
• B. Determination class
• C. Direct business object access
• D. Data crawler

Answer: A,C
 
NEW QUESTION 49
What SAP TM functionality is available with "Basic Shipping" of SAP S/4HANA Supply Chain for Transportation Management?
There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Transportation planning based on outbound deliveries
• B. Transportation planning based on sales orders
• C. Transportation execution without event management
• D. Transportation planning based on inbound deliveries
• E. Package building

Answer: A,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 50
What settings are controlled by the freight unit type? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Organizational unit determination
• B. Direct shipment options
• C. Freight unit building rule
• D. Change controller settings
• E. Tendering settings

Answer: A,B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 51
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NEW QUESTION 41
Universal Containers is preparing to deploy a high-volume production web application to the Heroku Common Runtime. Which two best practices should an Architect recommend for large-scale load testing of the application? Choose 2 answers.

• A. Move the apps into a Private Space to provide an isolated test environment
• B. Open a ticket with Heroku support for approval.
• C. Disable autoscaling to prevent application startup overhead from skewing results
• D. Ensure that the application runs on Performance-tier dynos

Answer: B,D
Explanation:

https://devcenter.heroku.eom/articles/private-spaces#trusted-ip-ranges
 
NEW QUESTION 42
A client has a Heroku Postgres database add-on attached to a production application. The client now wants to access the database from another application that they use to perform administrative tasks. What should an Architect recommend in this scenario?

• A. Create a fork of the database and attach it to the administrative application.
• B. Copy the database's connection URL and add it to the administrative application as a config var.
• C. Attach the database to an application that acts as a database proxy
• D. Attach the same Heroku Postgres add-on to the administrative application

Answer: D
Explanation:

• https://devcenter.heroku.eom/articles/using-sso-services-with-heroku#prerequisiles-for-sso-with-tieroku
   
  NEW QUESTION 43
  Universal Containers (UC) wants to allow its developers to only use certain add-ons. UC enables Add-on Controls for Enterprise Teams and adds the add-ons they wish to allow to the list. There is an existing set of add-ons attached to applications, which are NOT on the list.
  What happens to these add-ons?

• A. They are added to the allowed add-ons list.
• B. They are deleted, and all data is backed up and saved.
• C. They are flagged for removal, and the developers are notified.
• D. They are added to the exception list and not affected.

Answer: C
Explanation:

• https://devcenter.heroku.com/articles/addon-controls
   
  NEW QUESTION 44
  ......

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NEW QUESTION 35
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

• A. Risk categorization
• B. Risk data quality assessment
• C. Risk urgency
• D. Risk register

Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.2.3.1 Risk Register
The primary output from Identify Risks is the initial entry into the risk register. The risk register is a document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded. It contains the outcomes of the other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. The preparation of the risk register begins in the Identify Risks process with the following information, and then becomes available to other project management and risk management processes:
List of identified risks. The identified risks are described in as much detail as is reasonable. A structure

for describing risks using risk statements may be applied, for example, EVENT may occur causing IMPACT, or If CAUSE exists, EVENT may occur leading to EFFECT. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may become more evident. These are the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to one or more identified risks. They should be recorded and used to support future risk identification for this and other projects.
List of potential responses. Potential responses to a risk may sometimes be identified during the

Identify Risks process. These responses, if identified in this process, should be used as inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process.
Process: 11.3 Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Definition: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it enables project managers to reduce the level of uncertainty and to focus on high-priority risks.
Inputs

1. Risk management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Risk register
4. Enterprise environmental factors
5. Organizational process assets
   Tools & Techniques
6. Risk probability and impact assessment
7. Probability and impact matrix
8. Risk data quality assessment
9. Risk categorization
10. Risk urgency assessment
11. Expert judgment
    Outputs
12. Project documents updates
     
    NEW QUESTION 36
    Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

• A. Configuration Verification and Audit
• B. Configuration Status Accounting
• C. Configuration Identification
• D. Configuration Quality Assurance

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 37
Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

• A. Parametric estimating
• B. Vendor bid analysis
• C. Three-point estimates
• D. Reserve analysis

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 38
Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control Quality process?

• A. Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
• B. Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and procedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
• C. Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same.
• D. Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control Quality is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://www.project-management-prepcast.com/kunena/pmp-exam-discussion/7710-difference- between-manage-quality-and-control-quality
 
NEW QUESTION 39
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