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NEW QUESTION 25
Which three background colors are displayed for autocomplete in Process Cloud Service?

• A. Red forinvalid binding names
• B. Green for valid binding names
• C. Orange for unmatched binding names
• D. Blue for complex binding names (their children may contain valid binding names)

Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Explanation
https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/process-cloud/user/binding-form-data-controls.html#GUID-CECD2F13-1E The background colors displayed for the autocomplete options are:

• Green for valid binding names

• Red for invalid binding names

• Blue for complex binding names (their children may contain valid binding names) If a control isn't linked to an attribute or if a control is linked to an invalid attribute, anerror message is displayed in the Binding field and an error icon is displayed in the canvas. When a control doesn't have a valid binding, any value entered into the control in runtime is not passed on to the form payload.
   
  NEW QUESTION 26
  Which OIC XPATH function can be used to retrieve data from OIC Lookup within the data mapper tool?

• A. lookupvalue

• B. getLookup

• C. get-content-as-string

• D. Get-value-from-lookup

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 27
Which is NOT a valid service provided by Oracle Enterprise Scheduler Service (ESS)?

• A. distributing job-request processing across a grid of application servers
• B. invoking jobs on external On-Premand SaaS applications as scheduled on the those Schedulers
• C. configurable to allow or restrict running multiple job requests associated with a single job definition concurrently
• D. running Java, PL/SQL, and binary script jobs
• E. invoking jobs on external On-Prem and SaaS applications as scheduled on the Oracle Enterprise Scheduler

Answer: E
 
NEW QUESTION 28
Which schema is used for defining the field structure of an analytic object?

• A. Apache Avro schema
• B. XSDschema
• C. XSL Schema
• D. Database schema

Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Using Schemas to Define the Fields of Analytics ObjectsYou can import an Apache Avro schema file to define the field structure of your analytics object.
To import a schema file, your analytics object must not have any fields defined.
The namespace and object name in your schema file must match the name of the analytics object that you created.

• After you create your analytics object, click
  The file browser dialog box appears.
• Select a validAvro schema file from your computer and click Open.
  For more information about Avro schemas, see Apache Avro.
  The field structure defined in the schema file appears in the Fields section.
• Click Save.
  The fieldstructure defined in your Avro schema file is imported to your analytics object.
  https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/iot-cloud/iotgs/using-schemas-define-fields-analytics-objects.html
   
  NEW QUESTION 29
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NEW QUESTION 25
For which two SAML roles can the FortiAnalyzer be configured? (Choose two.)

• A. Identity collector
• B. Identity provider
• C. Principal
• D. Service provider

Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Reference:
20the%20identity%20provider%20(IdP,external%20identity%20provider%20is%20available.
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/administration-guide/981386/saml-admin-authentication
 
NEW QUESTION 26
View the exhibit:

What does the 1000MB maximum for disk utilization refer to?

• A. The disk quota for the ADOM type
• B. The disk quota for each device in the ADOM
• C. The disk quota for the FortiAnalyzer model
• D. The disk quota for all devices in the ADOM

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.0/administration-guide/743670/configuring-log-storage-policy
 
NEW QUESTION 27
How can you configure FortiAnalyzer to permit administrator logins from only specific locations?

• A. Use trusted hosts
• B. Use static routes
• C. Use secure protocols
• D. Use administrative profiles

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortianalyzer/6.2.5/administration-guide/186508/trusted-hosts
 
NEW QUESTION 28
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NEW QUESTION 20
An engineer is implementing a Cisco UCS environment The requirements for the solution are for the MAC addresses to be learned only on the server-facing ports. The use of the Spanning Tree Protocol must be avoided. Also, the engineer must have deterministic traffic handling from blades to uplink ports.
Which two settings must be selected to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

• A. end-host mode
• B. switching mode
• C. dynamic pinning
• D. static pinning
• E. NPIV mode

Answer: A,D
 
NEW QUESTION 21
A network design must include a solution to run CLI commands remotely on Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switches. The customer's security policy requires secure login credentials and an encrypted underlying transport. The command output will be processed using tools that support XML or JSON encoding. Which two components should be included in the design? (Choose two.)

• A. NX-API
• B. HTTPS
• C. Bash shell
• D. HTTP
• E. SSH

Answer: B,E
 
NEW QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco UCS chassis that has two IOMs is discovered. The chassis discovery policy creates a fabric port channel. What is the result of this policy?

• A. Each uplink that connects an IOM is configured as a discrete link.
• B. The port channel is disabled until an administrator enables it manually.
• C. Cisco UCS Manager creates two separate fabric port channels.
• D. Cisco UCS Manager creates a single fabric port channel.

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 23
What influences the number of ISLs that are required between Cisco MDS Series switches?

• A. type of storage
• B. N Port virtualization
• C. end-to-end oversubscription ratio
• D. FCoE protocol

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 24
......
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NEW QUESTION 24
Which Front End Optimization technique causes the Citrix ADC to resize images before sending them to the client?

• A. Inlining
• B. Minify
• C. Compression
• D. Shrink to Attributes

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/optimization/front-end-optimization.html
 
NEW QUESTION 25
Which variable will display the client's source IP address when added to an HTML Error Object page?

• A. ${CLIENT.IP.SRC}
• B. $<CLIENT.IP.SRC>
• C. $(CLIENT.IP.SRC)
• D. $[CLIENT.IP.SRC]

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 26
Which build-in TCP profile can a Citrix Engineer assign to a virtual server to improve performance for users who access an application from a remote office over an ATM connection?

• A. nstcp_default_tcp_lfp
• B. nstcp_default_tcp_lnp
• C. nstcp_default_tcp_interactive_stream
• D. nstcp_default_tcp_lan

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 27
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to ensure that the flow of traffic to a web application does NOT overwhelm the server. After thorough testing, the engineer determines that the application can handle a maximum of 3,000 requests per minute. The engineer builds a limit identifier, rl_maxrequests, to enforce this limitation.
Which advanced expression can the engineer write in the Responder policy to invoke rate limiting?

• A. SYS.CHECK_LIMIT("rl_maxrequests")
• B. SYS.CHECK_LIMIT("rl_maxrequests").CONTAINS("Busy")
• C. SYS.CHECK_LIMIT("rl_maxrequests").GE(3000)
• D. SYS.CHECK_LIMIT("rl_maxrequests").IS_VALID

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 28
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NEW QUESTION 27
Is the government only source of industrial standards within a country?

• A. No, the government can only adopt standards regarding security and defence
• B. No, an organisation can also generate its own internal standards
• C. Yes, while ISO make standards for international trade, the government standardises other facets of their country
• D. Yes, the standards must be made by legislative branch of the country

Answer: B
Explanation:
A standard is a document that sets out requirements for a specific item, material, component, system or service, or describes in detail a particular method or procedure. Standards are established by consensus and approved by recognized standardization bodies.
There are several different types of standards. Some of the most commonly-used standards set out the requirements that a particular kind of product, service or process must fulfil, in order to establish that it is 'fit for purpose'. Other types of standard relate to methods of testing, terminology and definitions, information requirements, or the compatibility of connections.
Standards provide individuals, businesses and all kinds of organizations with a common basis for mutual understanding. They are especially useful for communication, measurement, commerce and manufacturing.
Standards make trade easier by ensuring compatibility and interoperability of components, products and services. They bring benefits to businesses and consumers in terms of reducing costs, enhancing performance and improving safety.
Standards are voluntary, which means that businesses and other organizations are not legally obliged to apply them. However, in certain cases standards may facilitate compliance with legal requirements, such as those contained in European directives and regulations.
Standards can be made by a company, a standard organisation (such as ISO or BSI) or regulatory bodies.
Reference:

• CIPS study guide page 93-94
• Standards and your business
  LO 2, AC 2.1
   
  NEW QUESTION 28
  Which of the following documents are likely to have legal standing? Select TWO that apply:

• A. Estimate
• B. Quotation
• C. Tender
• D. Request for information
• E. Requisition

Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A quotation and a tender are both firm offers which have legal standing to the offeror. Tenders are more detailed than quotations and will include quality aspects as well as prices.
LO 1, AC 1.1 & AC 1.2
 
NEW QUESTION 29
Which of the following should be taken to avoid the conflicts between orally negotiated terms before the conclusion of contract and the final written contract?

• A. Finding signs of misrepresentation of the other contracting party
• B. Embedding a term excluding all prior oral discussions that are not mentioned in the final written contract
• C. Avoiding long negotiation
• D. Prevailing orally negotiated terms over the final written contract

Answer: B
Explanation:
When a written contract is based on oral negotiation, to avoid the conflicts between orally negotiated terms and final written contract, the contract should include an express term that specifically excludes all prior oral discussion. However, orally negotiated terms can be used to interpret the final contract.
This practice (excluding prior discussion) is so common in international commercial contract that UNIDROIT Principles of International Commercial Contracts have an article (2.1.17) dealing with this.
Reference:
LO 3, AC 3.1
 
NEW QUESTION 30
......

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NEW QUESTION 23
Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?

• A. prefix, TLOC, and service
• B. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
• C. primary, backup, and load-balanced
• D. Internet, MPLS, and backup

Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
 
NEW QUESTION 24
Which two statements about VRRP advertisements are true? (Choose two.)

• A. They include VRRP timer information.
• B. They are sent every three seconds by default.
• C. They are sent from the master router and standby routers.
• D. They include priority information.
• E. They are sent only from the master router.

Answer: D,E
 
NEW QUESTION 25
Drag and drop the model driven telemetry characteristics from the left onto the mode they belong to on the right.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

 
NEW QUESTION 26
......

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NEW QUESTION 29
What are some characteristics of low-code development?Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Low-code development requires the ability to think logically and analytically.
• B. Low-code development does not require knowing a programming language.
• C. Low-code development requires fluency in at least one programming language.
• D. Low-code development does not require prior coding experience.
• E. Low-code development is less complex than no-code development.

Answer: A,B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 30
What are some benefits of using Forms?Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Create documents for processes easily
• B. Create and share email templates easily
• C. Streamline business process approvals easily
• D. Create an interactive UI easily

Answer: A,C
 
NEW QUESTION 31
In SAP Process Automation, what are the principal parts of the automation editor?Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Console
• B. Left-side panel
• C. Right-side panel
• D. Workflow
• E. Process builder

Answer: A,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 32
In what tab of the SAP Process Automation UI do you browse, add, and use prepackaged projects?

• A. Lobby
• B. Monitor
• C. Settings
• D. Store

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 33
......

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NEW QUESTION 50
An Admin wants to generate one Asset record for each Quantity of a new Product. Currently, zero Asset records are generated for this Product when included on Quotes that are Contracted.
Which setting should the Admin change to meet the business requirement?

• A. Set the CPQ Package setting Renewal Model to Asset Based.
• B. Set the Product field Asset Amendment Behavior picklist to Allow Refund.
• C. Set the Account field Renewal Model to Asset Based.
• D. Set the Product field Asset Conversion picklist to One per Unit.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 51
The sales reps at Universal Containers want the Quote Line Editor to always display the column headers and the Quote Total on the desktop user interface, regardless of how many Quote Lines are present.
How can an admin meet the requirement?

• A. Enable Large Quote Experience to freeze the Total and column headers.
• B. Enable the Group Line items checkbox on the Quote to be checked by default.
• C. Enable Compact Mode so all of the Quote Lines fit on the screen at once.
• D. Enable Large configurations to freeze the Total and Column Headers.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 52
Universal Containers wants to make sure that Product Option A is included when Product B is being configured and sold Sales reps should be unable to remove Product A.
Which field should be set for the Product Option A?

• A. Bundled
• B. Required
• C. Selected
• D. Quantity Editable

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 53
Universal Containers offers a maintenance subscription, Product B, that is based on the price of a separate platform license subscription, Product A. The current configuration is:

Both Products are being quoted for a Term of 24 months. The List Unit Price for Product A is $200. The Net Total of Product A is $2,400.
What is the expected Net Total for Product B?

• A. $480, 00
• B. $24, 00
• C. $120, 00

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 54
......

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NEW QUESTION 37
What functions are available for period end closing in SAP Project System? Note: There are 3 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Confirmations
• B. Milestone trend analysis
• C. Progress analysis
• D. Settlement
• E. Results analysis

Answer: C,D,E
 
NEW QUESTION 38
Which organizational structures are required for network activities? Note: There are 3 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Controlling area
• B. Plant
• C. Sales organization
• D. Operating concern
• E. Company code

Answer: A,B,E
 
NEW QUESTION 39
When you create a service activity in your network, what data can be entered? Note: There are 3 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Vendor
• B. Service purchase order number
• C. Material master within service specification
• D. Overall limit (maximum value of all unplanned services)
• E. Service specification

Answer: A,D,E
 
NEW QUESTION 40
......

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NEW QUESTION 38
You use document splitting and post an incoming invoice via a cost center to segment A.
You then use the Manual Reposting 01 Costa (KB11N) transaction to Repost the expense to segment B.
What happens to the segment assigned to the supplier line item in the original invoice posting?

• A. The open item remains on segment A.
• B. The open item is assigned to segment B when the invoice is paid.
• C. The open item is assigned to segment B through reclassification at month end.
• D. The open item is assigned to segment B automatically with the CO reposting.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 39
What function is delivered with business function EA-FIN to support SAP S/4HANA?

• A. New Depreciation Engine
• B. Parallel depreciation areas
• C. Special valuations
• D. Parallel ledgers

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 40
In a first step, you create an account with account type "secondary cost element" and cost element category "42" in controlling area A000 and company code 1010. In a second step, you change this account to cost category "43" in company code 1750, which is assigned to the same controlling are a. What is the effect in the system when you save this account?

• A. This system brings up an error message and rejects the change
• B. The cost element category in the account is also changed for company code 1010
• C. The cost element category is different in the two company codes
• D. The user is asked which categorywill be used in the future

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 41
Cost of goods sold (COGS) split functionality is available in account-based CO-PA.
Which settings are necessary? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Characteristic values and characteristic groups must be maintained
• B. Cost elements must be mapped to cost components
• C. The corresponding cost elements must exist in the chart of accounts.
• D. Operating concern currency must be determined.

Answer: B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 42
A customer wants to store alternative values of a foreign currency valuation in an extension ledger. What extension ledger type is needed for this purpose? Please choose the correct answer.

• A. Simulation
• B. Extension
• C. Valuation
• D. Prediction and commitments

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 43
......
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NEW QUESTION 38
Which are mandatory fields when posting a Financial Contract Account document? Note: There are 3 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Subtransaction
• B. Provider Contract
• C. CO Segment
• D. Contract Account
• E. Currency

Answer: A,D,E
 
NEW QUESTION 39
What information does a billable item have that is not included in a standard rated consumption item?
Note: There are 3 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Main transactions
• B. Organizational data
• C. Currency
• D. Price for event
• E. Contract Account

Answer: A,B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 40
What does a chargeable item class define?

• A. The default and user properties of a service
• B. The chargeable item dependency
• C. The chargeable item sequence
• D. The link to an assigned service provider

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 41
The Metering system has made an error according to the usage quantity: the customer invoice has the quantity of 10. The correct quantity is 5. Which credit option do you use if you want to correct accounting and invoicing?

• A. Create with Billing Request for Correction a new billable item with quantity -5.
• B. Create a Credit Memo for Contract account with transaction 0010/0010.
• C. Create a Billing and Invoicing Reversal Document and rerun Billing and Invoicing.
• D. Correct the billed item in billable item monitor quantity from 10 to 5.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 42
......

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質問 48
As a Product Owner, you have sufficient data showing the outcome of the last release. The information shows that very few people are utilizing the new functionality and a number of features are never being used.
Which of the following actions could you take to further evaluate this unexpected result? (choose all that apply)

• A. Run experiments to increase your understanding of your customer needs.
• B. Evaluate whether the features are solving the intended problems.
• C. Spend more time talking with your users to understand their needs.
• D. Turn off the features that are never used and seek more user feedback.

正解: A,B,C
 
質問 49
You are a Product Owner and the most recent report is showing a downward trend in your product's users. A stakeholder (Subject Matter Expert) informs you that you need to release more features in order to win new customers. Based on the data you have collected, you have confirmed that the loss of customers is due to market changes rather than the lack of features. The stakeholder is afraid that if you don't increase the number of features in your next release, you risk missing the window of opportunity and losing the most valuable customers.
As a Product Owner, which two actions are most appropriate? (choose the best two answers)

• A. Collaborate with other stakeholders to gather additional ideas and take a poll on which ideas you should pursue
• B. Acknowledge the stakeholder's viewpoint but decline to increase the number of features in the next release
• C. Run a small experiment, in collaboration with the stakeholder, to validate their feedback.
• D. Acknowledge the stakeholder's viewpoint and increase the number of features in the next release

正解: B,C
 
質問 50
Your department has several teams working on different products at the same time.
Which of the following would be the best approach if managers want to understand the status of each team? (choose the best answer)

• A. Have the teams standardize their estimation practices across all teams to make it easier to compare the performance of each team.
• B. Ask the teams to collaborate and develop a common way to share their goals and achievements toward their goals for each planning period.
• C. Have a common status reporting tool that each team will fill out and can be shared with the managers.
• D. Have the teams created a comprehensive project plan and track their work against the plan.

正解: B
 
質問 51
What is the role of the Product Owner in crafting the Sprint Goal? (choose the best answer).

• A. The Product Owner participates in the Sprint Planning with a clear business objective and collaborates with the Developers and the Scrum Master to craft the Sprint Goal.
• B. There is nothing to do with the Sprint Goal. It's the Developers's responsibility.
• C. The Product Owner works with the stakeholders before she/he can craft the Sprint Goal.
• D. The Product Owner defines the scope of works and also the Sprint Goal

正解: A
 
質問 52
......

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NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following components can be turned on or off in the Service Catalog Cart Layout?

• A. Quantity
• B. Add to Wish List
• C. Calculate Shipping
• D. Delete Item

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 28
A user has a profile with read-only permissions for the case object.
How can the user be granted edit permission for cases?

• A. Create a sharing rule on the case object with read/write level of access.
• B. Add the user in a role hierarchy above users with edit permissions on the case object.
• C. Create a permission set with edit permissions for the case object.
• D. Create a public group with edit permissions for the case object.

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 29
An Order Guide can include multiple Items. Items have common variables, such as Shipping Location, and Requester. Which field on the Order Guide, when set to true, automatically copies the common variable values to corresponding variables on each included Item?

• A. Duplicate Variables
• B. Cascade Variables
• C. Global Variables
• D. Copy Repeat Variables

Answer: B
Explanation:

 
NEW QUESTION 30
......

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質問 28
What two hop types are available to choose when rendering topology?

• A. Element to Host
• B. Pod to Pod
• C. Host to Pod
• D. Pod to Element
• E. Host to Host

正解: A,B
 
質問 29
For Al Manager, which type of ChatOps channel surfaces stories?

• A. Reactive
• B. Private
• C. Proactive
• D. Public

正解: A
 
質問 30
In Al Manager, alert correlation is determined based on a combination of scope-based correlation and which other two types of correlation?

• A. Topological
• B. Anomaly
• C. Resolution
• D. Temporal
• E. Event

正解: B,C
 
質問 31
......

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NEW QUESTION 54
An auditor needs to scan documents at rest for sensitive text. These documents contain both text and Images. Which of the following software functionalities must be enabled in the DLP solution for the auditor to be able to fully read these documents? (Select TWO).

• A. Optical character recognition functionality
• B. Baseline image matching
• C. Advanced rasterization
• D. Document interpolation
• E. Watermarking
• F. Regular expression pattern matching

Answer: A,D
 
NEW QUESTION 55
A threat analyst notices the following URL while going through the HTTP logs.

Which of the following attack types is the threat analyst seeing?

• A. XSS
• B. CSRF
• C. SQL injection
• D. Session hijacking

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 56
Which of the following technologies allows CSPs to add encryption across multiple data storages?

• A. Data dispersion
• B. Symmetric encryption
• C. Bit splitting
• D. Homomorphic encryption

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 57
A company's SOC has received threat intelligence about an active campaign utilizing a specific vulnerability.
The company would like to determine whether it is vulnerable to this active campaign.
Which of the following should the company use to make this determination?

• A. Threat hunting
• B. The Cyber Kill Chain
• C. Log analysis within the SIEM tool
• D. A system penetration test

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 58
Which of the following is a benefit of using steganalysis techniques in forensic response?

• A. Maintaining chain of custody for acquired evidence
• B. Identifying least significant bit encoding of data in a .wav file
• C. Breaking a symmetric cipher used in secure voice communications
• D. Determining the frequency of unique attacks against DRM-protected media

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 59
......

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NEW QUESTION 47
A webserver is being overloaded with HTTPS traffic. To decrease the load on the server, the LTM Specialist and the Server. Administrator decide to perform SSL offloading on the LTM device. The configuration of the virtual server is as follows:

Which change must be made to the configuration to perform SSL offloading?

• A. Remove the clientssl and http profiles
• B. Remove the clients profile
• C. Remove the severssl profile
• D. Remove the clientssl and serverssl profiles

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 48
Refer to the exhibit.

How many nodes are represented on the network map shown?

• A. One
• B. Three
• C. Two
• D. Four

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 49
An LTM Specialist sees these entries in /var/log/ltm:
Oct 25 03:34:31 tmm warning tmm[7150]: 01260017:4: Connection attempt to insecure SSL server (see RFC5746) aborteD. 172.16.20.1:443 Oct 25 03:34:32 tmm warning tmm[7150]: 01260017:4: Connection attempt to insecure SSL server (see RFC5746) aborteD. 172.16.20.1:443 Oct 25 03:34:32 tmm warning tmm[7150]: 01260017:4: Connection attempt to insecure SSL server (see RFC5746) aborteD. 172.16.20.1:443 Oct 25 03:34:32 tmm warning tmm[7150]: 01260017:4: Connection attempt to insecure SSL server (see RFC5746) aborteD. 172.16.20.1:443 Oct 25 03:34:32 tmm warning tmm[7150]: 01260017:4: Connection attempt to insecure SSL server (see RFC5746) aborteD. 172.16.20.1:443 Oct 25 03:34:33 tmm warning tmm[7150]: 01260017:4: Connection attempt to insecure SSL server (see RFC5746) aborteD. 172.16.20.1:443 Assume 172.16.20.0/24 is attached to the VLAN "internal." What should the LTM Specialist use to troubleshoot this issue?

• A. tcpdump -i internal host 172.16.20.1 > /shared/ssl.pcap
  ssldump < /shared/ssl.pcap
• B. curl -d - -k https://172.16.20.1
• C. tcpdump -s 64 -i internal -w /shared/ssl.pcap host 172.16.20.1
  ssldump -r /shared/ssl.pcap
• D. ssldump -i internal host 172.16.20.1

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 50
......

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NEW QUESTION 35
When do tokens get replaced?

• A. By default only applied to existing item
• B. Only when items are created
• C. None
• D. By default also applied to existing item also

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 36
What method do you need to invoke inside a View Rendering form to ensure only its controller reacts to the post?

• A. Both
• B. None
• C. Html.Sitecore().ValidateHandler()
• D. Html.Sitecore().FormHandler()

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 37
What is the name of the template all templates should inherit from?

• A. Base Template
• B. None
• C. Inherited Template
• D. Standard Template

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 38
IQueryable<T> interface not supported.

• A. All
• B. Aggregate
• C. GroupBy
• D. Sum

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 39
Vertical Scaling?

• A. using servers to perform different roles
• B. splitting the work of a single server into multiple ones
• C. Both a and b
• D. None

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 40
......
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NEW QUESTION 40
You are using Microsoft Office 365. Which SAP Analytics Cloud planning features are supported with SAP Analytics Cloud, add-in for Microsoft Office? Note: There are 2 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Publish
• B. Revert
• C. Cell locking
• D. Data Action

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 41
Which features does SAP Analytics Cloud offer? There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Data Integration
• B. Data Exploration
• C. Integrated Planning
• D. Business Intelligence
• E. Data Mining

Answer: A,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 42
Which SAP Analytics Cloud data model functions can you use to enhance data?

• A. Connection change
• B. Calculation of measures
• C. Dimension sorting
• D. Data grouping

Answer: B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 43
Smart Discovery in SAP Analytics Cloud is limited to how many data cells?

• A. 10 000 000
• B. 10 000
• C. 1 000 000
• D. 100 000

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 44
......

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NEW QUESTION 49
Based on which opportunity attributes can you create a sales forecast? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Negotiated Value
• B. Total Contract Value
• C. Expected Revenue
• D. Weighted Revenue

Answer: A,C
 
NEW QUESTION 50
On which revenue levels can a forecast be based? Note: There are 2 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Territory
• B. Customer
• C. Opportunity
• D. Product

Answer: C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 51
What happens to a sales quote when a follow-on contract-item is created?

• A. The sales quote status changes to won.
• B. The sales quote is converted to a sales order.
• C. The sales quote is sent for approval.
• D. The sales quote is cancelled.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 52
Which data is synchronized bi-directionally between SAP Hybris Cloud for Customer and SAP CRM on premise? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Account Master Data
• B. Product master data
• C. Opportunities
• D. Territory Management data

Answer: A,C
 
NEW QUESTION 53
Which assignment options are available when creating a new base price list? Note: There are 2 correct Answers to this question.

• A. Validity
• B. Scales
• C. Sales team
• D. Discounts

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 54
......

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NEW QUESTION 53
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server.
When you attempt to install the Azure Performance Diagnostics extension on VM I, the installation fails.
You need to identify the cause of the installation failure.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

• A. Sign in to VM1 and verify the WaAppAgentlog file.
• B. Sign into VM1 and verify the MonitoringAgentlog file.
• C. From the Azure portal, view the activity log for VM1.
• D. From the Azure portal, view the alerts for VM1.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Topic 2, Fabrikam inc
Existing Environment
Identity Infrastructure
Fabrikam has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest that syncs with an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. The AD DS forest contains two domains named corp.fabrikam.com and europe.fabrikam.com.
Chicago Office On-Premises Servers
The office in Chicago contains on-premises servers that run Windows Server 2016 as shown in the following table.

All the servers in the Chicago office are in the corp.fabrikam.com domain.
All the virtual machines in the Chicago office are hosted on HV1 and HV2. HV1 and HV2 are nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1.
WEB1 and WEB2 run an Internet Information Services (IIS) website. Internet users connect to the website by using a URL of https://www.fabrikam.com.
All the users in the Chicago office run an application that connects to a UNC path of \Fileserver1\Data.
Paris On-Premises Servers
The office in Paris contains a physical server named dc2.europe.fabrikam.com that runs Windows Server 2016 and is a domain controller for the europe.fabrikam.com domain.
Network Infrastructure
The networks in both the Chicago and Paris offices have local internet connections. The Chicago and Paris offices are connected by using VPN connections.
The client computers in the Chicago office get IP addresses from DHCP1.
Security Risks
Fabrikam identifies the following security risks:
Some accounts connect to AD DS resources by using insecure protocols such as NTLMv1, SMB1, and unsigned LDAP.
Servers have Windows Defender Firewall enabled. Server administrators sometimes modify firewall rules and allow risky connections.
Requirements
Security Requirements
Fabrikam identifies the following security requirements:
Prevent server administrators from configuring Windows Defender Firewalls rules.
Encrypt all the data disks on the servers by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
Ensure that only authorized applications can be installed or run on the servers in the forest.
Implement Microsoft Sentinel as a reporting solution to identify all connections to the domain controllers that use insecure protocols.
On-Premises Migration Plan
Fabrikam plans to migrate all the existing servers and identifies the following migration requirements:
Move the APP1 and APP2 virtual machines in the Chicago office to a new Hyper-V failover cluster named Cluster2 that will run Windows Server 2022.
Cluster2 will contain two new nodes named HV3 and HV4.
All virtual machine files will be stored on a Cluster Shared Volume (CSV).
Migrate Archive1 to a new failover cluster named Cluster3 that will run Windows Server 2022.
Cluster3 will contain two physical nodes named Node1 and Node2.
The file shares on Cluster3 will be a failover cluster role in active-passive mode.
Migrate all users, groups, and client computers from europe.fabrikam.com to corp.fabrikam.com.
The migration will be performed by using the Active Directory Migration Tool (ADMT).
A computer named ADMTcomputer will be deployed to the corp.fabrikam.com domain to run ADMT migration procedures.
User accounts will retain their existing password.
Migrate the data share from Fileserver1 to a new server named Fileserver2 that will run Windows Server 2022. After the migration, the data share must be accessible by using the existing UNC path.
Azure Migration Plan
Fabrikam plans to migrate some resources to Azure and identifies the following migration requirements:
Create an Azure subscription named Sub1.
Create an Azure virtual network named Vnet1.
Use ExpressRoute to connect the Paris and Chicago offices to Vnet1.
License all servers for Microsoft Defender for servers.
Migrate APP3 and APP4 to Azure.
Migrate the www.fabrikam.com website to an Azure App Service web app named WebApp1.
Decommission WEB1 and WEB2.
DHCP Migration Plan
Fabrikam plans to replace DHCP1 with a new server named DHCP2 and identifies the following migration requirements:
Ensure that DHCP2 provides the same IP addresses that are currently available from DHCP1.
Prevent DHCP1 from servicing clients once services are enabled on DHCP2.
Ensure that the existing leases and reservations are migrated.
 
NEW QUESTION 54
You are planning the implementation of Cluster2 to support the on-premises migration plan.
You need to ensure that the disks on Cluster2 meet the security requirements.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/failover-clustering/bitlocker-on-csv-in-ws-2022
 
NEW QUESTION 55
You need to implement a security policy solution to authorize the applications. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which service should you use to enforce the security policy, and what should you use to manage the policy settings? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

Explanation
Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/windows-defender-application-control/wdac
 
NEW QUESTION 56
......