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NEW QUESTION 39
How can you provide a deeplink to published content? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. By defining the web server's URL as a start link prefix and copying the published start link property
• B. By activating Show UID in the Producers' View menu and copying the UIDs as a deeplink for the published content
• C. By changing the view in the Manager from Without Tag to Published and copying the Start Link from selected content
• D. By selecting content in the Project Explorer of the Manager and copying the URL in the address bar of the browser

Answer: B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 40
How can you deliver a role-based Desktop Assistant? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Use the Roles field in Producer and publish one Desktop Assistant for all users so users can select their roles manually.
• B. Publish several content packages via role-filtered publishing of subtrees.
• C. Activate the Desktop Assistant Tracking option in the Desktop Assistant playback settings.
• D. Connect Desktop Assistant with the target application and use the roles provided by the application.

Answer: A,D
 
NEW QUESTION 41
What are characteristics of sustainable knowledge production? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Multi-modality
• B. Generic library views
• C. No references
• D. Maintainability
• E. No redundancies

Answer: A,D,E
 
NEW QUESTION 42
......

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NEW QUESTION 28
How to derive event reason for scenarios NOT configured in the rule?

• A. Provide a logic to define the event reason for all possible scenarios and at the end set a catch-all rule or a catch-all event reason.
• B. the end set a catch-all rule or a catch-all event reason.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 29
Which elements are part of Employee Profile configuration in the Succession Data Model? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. HRIS elements
• B. HRIS actions
• C. User Info elements
• D. Standard elements

Answer: C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 30
Which of the following are features of picklists created in the Picklist Center? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Order of the values is set globally for all picklists.
• B. Picklists are used for generic objects.
• C. Unused values in a picklist can be marked as OBSOLETED.
• D. Picklists are effectively dated.

Answer: B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 31
......
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NEW QUESTION 33
What are the some main security characteristics of the SAP Field Service management Mobile App.?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. Oauth Token for Login free access
• B. Advanced perimeter security
• C. Full Backup protection of Customer data
• D. SSL-Secured communication

Answer: A,D
 
NEW QUESTION 34
As an Administrator, you can maintain Settings at different levels. Which statements explain how you apply these settings? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. You apply Company level settings to all databases
• B. You apply account level settings to All databases
• C. You apply account level settings to a specific database
• D. You apply Company level settings to aspecific database

Answer: B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 35
Which actions can you use in a Business Rule configuration? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Create Object
• B. Delete Report
• C. Delete Object
• D. Create Reqirement
• E. Build Query

Answer: A,B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 36
......

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は何を考えていますか？

質問 49
Cloud Kicks wants to create an external facing site where users can:

• Manage and submit cases via the web.

• Browse and search Knowledge Base articles.

• Contact Support via lice chat.
  Which cloud should be used to design an appropriate solution for CK's users?

• A. Sales Cloud

• B. Marketing Cloud

• C. Experience Cloud

• D. Service Cloud

正解: D
 
質問 50
Cloud Kicks marketing development representatives need to process incoming leads. Understanding the typical lead to opportunity is essential to the design.
Which three new records would typically be created when they convert a lead?
Choose 3 answers

• A. Converted Lead
• B. Activity
• C. Contact
• D. Account
• E. Opportunity

正解: A,C,E
 
質問 51
Which two resource of the Salesforce Lightning Design System (SLDS) could be used to make custom application look, act, and sound like Salesforce?
Choose 2 answers

• A. Blueprints and tokens
• B. In-App Guidance
• C. Guidelines for voice and tone
• D. Full functional components

正解: A,D
 
質問 52
A UX Designer needs to create a visual representation of a user's series of steps to achieve a meaningful goal.
Which UX design method should be used?

• A. User Persona
• B. Site Map
• C. Lightning Flow
• D. User Flow

正解: A
 
質問 53
Cloud kicks is planning its einstein Bot implementation and has identified common issues the Bot can resolve. CK has determined that extensive technical planning is needed for bot effectiveness and customer satisfaction

• A. user interface planning
• B. Training and support for planning
• C. deboarding planning
• D. voice and tone planning

正解: A
 
質問 54
......

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NEW QUESTION 49
An administrator at Universal Containers has been asked by the compliance team to understand end track various sensitivity levels for its data In Salesforce. The administrator has enabled Data Classification end configured appropriate sensitivity levels. The compliance team would Ike a report showing field level sensitivity and classification.
What should the administrator recommend?

• A. Run the standard Data Classification report.
• B. Create a custom Entity Definition and Held Definitions report type.
• C. Use the Data Classification Metadata list view.
• D. Configure a custom Data Classification and Metadata report type.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 50
Universal Containers categorizes its accounts with one of two status values - Prospect or Customer. The administrator wants to automatically change the value from Prospect to Customer when an opportunity is won. Which two actions should the administrator take to accomplish this? Choose 2 answers

• A. Create an opportunity workflow rule that updates the Account Status field.
• B. Create an account workflow rule that updates the Account Status field.
• C. Use Visualforce to update the Account Status field.
• D. Use an Apex trigger to update the Account Status field.

Answer: A,D
 
NEW QUESTION 51
The sales agents at DreamHouse Realty have a profile that allows them to import records for a custom object called House. The agents only need to make imports occasionally and typically Import around 100 new records at a time.
What tool should the agents use to upload records?

• A. Apex
• B. Bulk API
• C. Data Loader
• D. Date Xmport Wizard

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 52
......

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質問 27
A database, DT1, is shown in the following exhibit:

The Filter Wizard of a Filter Data Table activity is shown below:

What is the result after the activity has executed?

• A. DT1 is returned as an empty datatable.
• B. A runtime error will be thrown.
• C. DT1 is overwritten based on the settings of the Filter Wizard.
• D. DT1 is unaffected by the settings of the Filter Wizard.

正解: C
 
質問 28
A developer is working with a variable named sampleDataTable of type DataTable in the following sequence. In the Invoke Code activity, the developer wants to sum up all values from column "Price" in the sampleDataTable. What will be the result of the processing?

• A. "Message Box" activity will display the value "120".
• B. "Message Box" activity will display the value "320".
• C. Message Box" activity will display the value "0".
• D. An Error Message will be displayed.

正解: D
解説:

 
質問 29
Which of the following are required to have efficient execution of automation projects?
Options are :

• A. Recovery abilities
• B. Proper exception handling
• C. Effective logging mechanisms

正解: A,B,C
 
質問 30
A developer wants to create a process for a Call Center user. This process must:

1. Interact with application windows that are minimized or in the background.
2. Allow the user to interact with separate desktop applications at the same time.
   Which workflow activity requires modifications to some of the properties' default values to ensure this process runs in the background?

• A. Get Text
• B. Type Into
• C. Select Item
• D. Element Exists

正解: A
 
質問 31
Which statement about the UiPath Robotic Enterprise Framework template is false?
Options are :

• A. The framework has a robust exception handling scheme and event logging.
• B. The framework is meant to be a template that helps the user design processes.
• C. The framework can be used only if you get the input data from the UiPath server queues.

正解: C
 
質問 32
......

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NEW QUESTION 21
You want to write a query that prompts for two column names and the WHERE condition each time it is executed in a session but only prompts for the table name the first time it is executed.
The variables used in your query are never undefined in your session.
Which query can be used?
SELECT &&col1, &&col2

• A. FROM &table
  WHERE '&&condition' = '&cond';
  SELECT &&col1, &&col2
• B. FROM "&table"
  WHERE &condition;
  SELECT '&&col1', '&&col2'
• C. FROM &table
  WHERE &&condition = &&cond;
  SELECT &col1, &col2
• D. FROM &table
  WHERE &&condition;
• E. FROM &&table
  WHERE &condition;
  SELECT &col1, &col2

Answer: E
 
NEW QUESTION 22
Which three statements are true about Oracle synonyms? (Choose three.)

• A. A SEQUENCE can have a synonym
• B. A synonym can be available to all users
• C. Any user can drop a PUBLIC synonym
• D. A synonym cannot be created for a PL/SQL package
• E. A synonym created by one user can refer to an object belonging to another user

Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/statements_7001.htm
 
NEW QUESTION 23
Examine the description of the SALES1 table:

SALES2 is a table with the same description as SALES1.
Some sales data is duplicated in both tables.
You want to display the rows from the SALES1 table which are not present in the SALES2 table.
Which set operator generates the required output?

• A. UNION ALL
• B. MINUS
• C. SUBTRACT
• D. UNION
• E. INTERSECT

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 24
Which two statements are true about the PMON background process? (Choose two.)

• A. It registers database services with all local and remote listeners known to the database instance
• B. It frees resources held by abnormally terminated processes
• C. It kills sessions that exceed idle time
• D. It records checkpoint information in the control file
• E. It frees unused temporary segments

Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm
 
NEW QUESTION 25
......

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NEW QUESTION 52
What is the identifier that represents the employment of an employee?

• A. Position ID
• B. Person ID
• C. Job Code ID
• D. User ID

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 53
You have configured a custom field in the Employment Information portlet of the Succession Data Model as follows: You edit the Employment Information portlet of an existing employee file and the Remote Worker? field only displays No Selection in the drop down list. What is the most likely issue?

• A. The field visibility attribute is incorrect.
• B. The picklist ID is incorrect.
• C. The RBP permissions are incorrect.
• D. The field datatype is incorrect.

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 54
What does SAP SuccessFactors recommend to create new and custom associations between Foundation Objects? Please choose the correct answer.

• A. All new and custom associations should be built as One to Many.
• B. All new and custom associations should be built between an MDF FO and another MDF FO.
• C. All new and custom associations should be built between an XML FO and another XML FO.
• D. All new and custom associations should be built as One to One.

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 55
......

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NEW QUESTION 23
What are examples of the Feature Access you can set on a User's Profile? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. This User can act as Program Manager
• B. Manage Personally Identifiable Information
• C. Use PMO Dashboard
• D. This User can act as Coordinator/Distributor for Contingent Workflow
• E. Manage User Roles

Answer: A,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 24
What does My Group indicate with user visibility?

• A. Users can view only the documents that they are the document owner.
• B. Users can access documents they are associated with by that document's owner.
• C. Users can view all documents within their business unit, cost center, or site.
• D. Users can access documents they have always been associated with.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 25
When reviewing details for an upload or download in the Integration Audit Trail, what is the unique identifier called?

• A. Client Message
• B. Server Status
• C. Initiator
• D. Transaction ID

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 26
Which Qualification Assessment Scale should be used if you need to include an attachment?

• A. Certification
• B. Yes/No
• C. Duration
• D. Points

Answer: A
 
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NEW QUESTION 49
You have SQL Server on an Azure virtual machine that contains a database named DB1. DB1 contains a table
named CustomerPII.
You need to record whenever users query the CustomerPII table.
Which two options should you enable? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

• A. server audit specification
• B. SQL Server audit
• C. database audit specification
• D. a server principal

Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Section: [none]
Explanation:
An auditing policy can be defined for a specific database or as a default server policy in Azure (which hosts
SQL Database or Azure Synapse):

• A server policy applies to all existing and newly created databases on the server.

• If server auditing is enabled, it always applies to the database. The database will be audited, regardless of
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• Enabling auditing on the database, in addition to enabling it on the server, does not override or change any
  of the settings of the server auditing. Both audits will exist side by side.
  Note:
  The Server Audit Specification object belongs to an audit.
  A Database Audit Specification defines which Audit Action Groups will be audited for the specific database in
  which the specification is created.
  Reference:
  https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/auditing-overview
   
  NEW QUESTION 50
  Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
  the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
  more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
  After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
  questions will not appear in the review screen.
  You have two Azure SQL Database servers named Server1 and Server2. Each server contains an Azure SQL
  database named Database1.
  You need to restore Database1 from Server1 to Server2. The solution must replace the existing Database1 on
  Server2.
  Solution: You run the Remove-AzSqlDatabasePowerShell cmdlet for Database1 on Server2. You run the
  Restore-AzSqlDatabasePowerShell cmdlet for Database1 on Server2.
  Does this meet the goal?

• A. Yes

• B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: [none]
Explanation:
Instead restore Database1 from Server1 to the Server2 by using the RESTORE Transact-SQL command and
the REPLACE option.
Note: REPLACE should be used rarely and only after careful consideration. Restore normally prevents
accidentally overwriting a database with a different database. If the database specified in a RESTORE
statement already exists on the current server and the specified database family GUID differs from the
database family GUID recorded in the backup set, the database is not restored. This is an important safeguard.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/restore-statements-transact-sql
 
NEW QUESTION 51
You need to configure user authentication for the SERVER1 databases. The solution must meet the security and compliance requirements.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

1 - Create an Azure AD administrator for the logical server
2 - Create contained database users
3 - Connect to the databases by using an Azure AD account
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/authentication-aad-overview
 
NEW QUESTION 52
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure SQL database named Sales.
You need to implement disaster recovery for Sales to meet the following requirements:

• During normal operations, provide at least two readable copies of Sales.

• Ensure that Sales remains available if a datacenter fails.
  Solution: You deploy an Azure SQL database that uses the Business Critical service tier and Availability Zones.
  Does this meet the goal?

• A. No

• B. Yes

Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: [none]
Explanation:
Premium and Business Critical service tiers leverage the Premium availability model, which integrates compute resources (sqlservr.exe process) and storage (locally attached SSD) on a single node. High availability is achieved by replicating both compute and storage to additional nodes creating a three to four-node cluster.
By default, the cluster of nodes for the premium availability model is created in the same datacenter. With the introduction of Azure Availability Zones, SQL Database can place different replicas of the Business Critical database to different availability zones in the same region. To eliminate a single point of failure, the control ring is also duplicated across multiple zones as three gateway rings (GW).
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/database/high-availability-sla
 
NEW QUESTION 53
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that contains a user named user1@contoso.com and an Azure SQL managed instance named SQLMI1.
You need to ensure that user1@contoso.com can create logins in SQLMI1 that map to Azure AD service principals.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

1 - Grant SQLMI1 read access to Azure AD.
2 - Run CREATE LOGIN,,,,,
3 - Run AKTER SERVER,,,,,
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-sql/managed-instance/aad-security-configure-tutorial
 
NEW QUESTION 54
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NEW QUESTION 37
What does the material type influence in the material master in SAP Materials Management? There are
2 correct answers to this question.

• A. MRP type
• B. Account group
• C. Quantity and value update
• D. Procurement type.

Answer: C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 38
Which of the following are characteristics of the Hold function for purchase orders? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. It allows any kind of error in a document
• B. It disables follow-on activities
• C. It is supported for blanket purchase orders
• D. It triggers a workflow to request completion of the document

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 39
What can you specify in an output condition record?
There are 3 correct answers to this question.
Response:

• A. Partner function
• B. Output time
• C. Validity period
• D. E-mail address
• E. Output medium

Answer: A,B,E
 
NEW QUESTION 40
Which of the following are features of the Delivery Completed indicator in a purchase order (PO) item?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

• A. If you set the indicator, the PO item is NO longer relevant for material requirements planning.
• B. The indicator is always set automatically if the quantity received is within the underdelivery tolerance.
• C. You can set the indicator manually when entering a goods receipt for your PO item.
• D. If you set the indicator, NO further goods receipt may be posted for the PO item.

Answer: A,B
 
NEW QUESTION 41
......

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NEW QUESTION 20
When provisioning bandwidth for an IP telephony network, which elements are unique to an IP telephony call?
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• A. call-control signaling
• B. voice stream
• C. speed of the segment to the telephone
• D. routing protocol packets
• E. IGMP packets

Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Bandwidth provisioning for an IP telephony call consists of the voice stream traffic and the call control traffic.
These elements are unique to an IP telephony call.
The network infrastructure should be examined to see if the required bandwidth exists to support the voice and call-control applications. The sum of the bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75% of the total available bandwidth for each link. Voice traffic can be characterized as:
Smooth
Benign
Drop sensitive
Delay sensitive
Voice packets are typically around 60 to 120 bytes in size. For good voice quality, packet loss should be less than 1 percent and delay should be no more than 150 ms.
The IP telephony voice call-control procedures also generate traffic. The call control procedures are in the areas of call setup, maintenance, redirect, and tear down. There are special protocols such as H.323 and Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP) that handle these procedures.
Voice applications are delay-sensitive. Speech is sampled by voice processors referred to as a codec (coder/ decoder). Then the digitized voice-sample outputs of the codecs are sent into the network towards the receiver at regular intervals in real-time transport protocol (RTP) packets. If these packets containing the voice samples are delayed for any reason behind other data traffic, the quality of the voice conversation suffers.
The transportation of these voice applications in RTP packets through the IP network handled by H.323 protocols and devices is referred to as Voice over IP (or VoIP for short).
The following are other network and design considerations besides bandwidth relating to IP telephony infrastructure support:
Determine if the cabling plant can support the IP telephony equipment.
Determine if the switch hardware can supply power to attached IP telephony equipment or if additional hardware is required.
Ensure that infrastructure supports priority end-to-end VLANs and QoS networking.
Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used for managing the membership of IP multicast groups and is not an element unique to an IP telephony call.
Routing protocol packets (RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP) are used by routers to share routing information, and are not elements unique to an IP telephony call.
The speed of the segment to the telephone is important to VoIP, but that is not an element unique to an IP telephony call.
Objective:
Layer 2 Technologies
Sub-Objective:
Configure and verify VLANs
References:
Cisco > Support > Technology Support > Voice > Telephony Signaling
 
NEW QUESTION 21
Which two statements about VRRP object tracking are true? (Choose two)

• A. A VRRP group can track only one object at a time
• B. VRRP supports only interce tracking
• C. The VRRP interface priority must be manually configured by the administrator
• D. The priority of a VRRP device can change in accordance with the up or down status of a VRRP object
• E. VRRP can track the status of interfaces and routes

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 22
Which node performs the LISP Map-Server and Map-Resolver functions in the Cisco SD-Access network architecture?

• A. border node
• B. fabric edge node
• C. control plane node
• D. intermediate node

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 23

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routes belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take?

• A. Make area 1 a stub.
• B. Make the area 1 routers part of area 0.
• C. Make area 1 a NSSA.
• D. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area.

Answer: C
Explanation:

 
NEW QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must design a WAN solution so that ISP-1 is always preferred over ISP-2. The path via ISP-2 is considered as a backup and must be used only when the path to ISP-1 is down. Which solution must the engineer choose?

• **A. R1:

• Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend
• Routes received from ISP-1: HIGH local-preference
• Routes advertised to R2: community NO-EXPORT
• Routes received from R2: no action
  R2:
• Routes advertised to ISP-2: 5x AS-path prepend
• Routes received from ISP-2: LOW local-preference
• Routes advertised to R1: no action
• Routes received from R1: no action**

• B. R1:

• Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend
• Routes received from ISP-1: LOW local-preference
• Routes advertised to R2: community NO-ADVERTISE
• Routes received from R2: no action
  R2:
• Routes advertised to ISP-2: 5x AS-path prepend
• Routes received from ISP-2: HIGH local-preference
• Routes advertised to R1: no action
• Routes received from R1: community NO-ADVERTISE

• C. R1:

• Routes advertised to ISP-1: 5x AS-path prepend
• Routes received from ISP-1: LOW local-preference
• Routes advertised to R2: community NO-ADVERTISE
• Routes received from R2: no action
  R2:
• Routes advertised to ISP-2: 0x AS-path prepend
• Routes received from ISP-2: HIGH local-preference
• Routes advertised to R1: community NO-EXPORT
• Routes received from R1: no action

• D. R1:

• Routes advertised to ISP-1: 0x AS-path prepend
• Routes received from ISP-1: HIGH local-preference
• Routes advertised to R2: no action
• Routes received from R2: community NO-EXPORT
  R2:
• Routes advertised to ISP-2:5x AS-path prepend
• Routes received from ISP-2: LOW local-preference
• Routes advertised to R1: community NO-ADVERTISE
• Routes received from R1: no action

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 25
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NEW QUESTION 48
Which of the following does Emergency Access Management support?

• A. A Firefighter ID can only be assigned to a single user
• B. Both centralized and decentralized firefighting at the same time
• C. A user can only be assigned to a single Firefighter ID
• D. Both role- and ID-based firefighting at the same time

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 49
Which of the following jobs are a prerequisite for scheduling a User Access Review (UAR)? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Action Usage Sync
• B. User/Role/Profile sync
• C. Role Comparison
• D. Role Usage Sync
• E. Authorization Sync

Answer: A,B,D
 
NEW QUESTION 50
You want to configure your MSMP Workflow stage definition to ensure that a workflow request that has NOT been processed after a certain period of time can be escalated and approved by another approver. Which of the following options can you use to configure escalation? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Maintain Fallback Receiver
• B. Define an Alternate Approver
• C. Escalate to Specified Agent
• D. Use Defaults
• E. Skip to Next Stage

Answer: A,C,E
 
NEW QUESTION 51
It is mandatory for a Firefighter ID to be assigned to which of the following?

• A. Firefighter ID Controller
• B. Firefighter ID Owner and Firefighter ID Controller
• C. Firefighter
• D. Firefighter ID Owner

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 52
You are tasked with configuring SAP Access Control to retrieve user and authentication information. SAP Access Control supports connector configuration for which of the following functions? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. End User Verification
• B. User Identity Management
• C. User Search Data Source
• D. User Detail Data Source
• E. User Identity Federation

Answer: A,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 53
......

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NEW QUESTION 45
Which of the following scenarios can InfiniBand be applied to? (Multiple Choice)

• A. Interconnection between storage disk enclosures
• B. Interconnection between storage controllers
• C. Interconnection between distributed storage nodes
• D. Interconnection between FusionCube devices

Answer: B,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 46
A company uses Huawei's distributed storage block service to run data services. The development team needs to use business data for data mining and testing without affecting business data. Which of the following descriptions are correct? (Multiple Choice)

• A. Create clones based on volumes/snapshots, read and write to clones
• B. The source data and the clone data each evolve into two different data
• C. Create a clone of the snapshot and use the clone for testing
• D. Generate a snapshot of the data to be tested at a certain point in time

Answer: A,B,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 47
In the synchronous replication scenario, the peak write bandwidth of an application is 16MB/s, the average of write bandwidth is 500KB/s, the average write IO size is 8KB, the overhead of private information is about 11%, and the bandwidth utilization rate is 80%. The disaster network bandwidth should not be less than?

• A. 5.5MB/s
• B. 180Mb/s
• C. 22.5Mb/s
• D. 5.5Mb/s

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 48
Bank M plans to build a remote disaster recovery center. The distance between the disaster recovery center and the production center is about 1000KM. When the bank is building a remote disaster recovery center, which of the following statements are correct? (Multiple Choice)

• A. The write delay of the front-end application of the bank's storage system has nothing to do with the distance between the production center and the disaster recovery center
• B. The network bandwidth design does not need to consider the replication cycle
• C. The bank's production center and disaster recovery center need to use asynchronous remote replication technology
• D. The network bandwidth needs to consider the change of business data in the production center

Answer: A,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 49
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NEW QUESTION 49
Which statement about login redistribution is true?

• A. Login redistribution is supported only on the HPE Synergy Virtual Connect SE 32Gb FC Modules
• B. Login redistribution is used for login balancing when they are not distributed evenly over the FC links
• C. Login redistribution is available only If HPE Primera or HPE Alletra is connected directly to the HPE Synergy frame
• D. Login redistribution is a licensed feature and the number of licenses required depends on the number of active ports

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 50
Your customer is implementing an HPE Synergy solution based on three frames.
Click each of the ports that can be used to connect satellite modules.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

 
NEW QUESTION 51
Which statement about manual orchestration during the firmware update is true?

• A. It provides an ability to select and update one side of the Interconnect topology at a time
• B. It allows all the interconnect modules to be activated manually at the same time.
• C. It provides the ability to install an older firmware version than currently Installed In the interconnect
• D. It is supported only for logical enclosures with at least three frames

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 52
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NEW QUESTION 25
A vSAN administrator has been tasked to add capacity to an existing vSAN cluster and has ordered enough larger capacity devices to complete this work. Tests have been executed, and the replacement from one single capacity device will require 70 minutes.
Which two approaches can the vSAN administrator use to complete this task? (Choose two.)

• A. Confirm with pre-check that enough capacity for data migration is available, select a capacity device, click "remove disk" with "Ensure accessibility", replace capacity device, claim unused device, and then repeat one-by-one.
• B. "Shutdown ESXi host", and replace all capacity devices. Repeat this sequence one-by-one.
• C. "Change object repair timer to 75 minutes", "set capacity device to offline", and then replace capacity device one-by-one.
• D. Execute a "Data Migration Pre-Check", enter Maintenance Mode with default setting, "Shutdown ESXi host", replace all capacity devices, and then repeat on ESXi hosts one-by-one.
• E. Enter Maintenance Mode, confirm that pre check is fine, select "Full data migration", "Shutdown ESXi host", replace all capacity devices, "Restart ESXi host", replace capacity devices in disk groups, exit Maintenance Mode, confirm that raw capacity has been increased, and then repeat on ESXi host one-by-one.

Answer: B,E
Explanation:

1. Enter Maintenance Mode, confirm that pre check is fine, select "Full data migration", "Shutdown ESXi host", replace all capacity devices, "Restart ESXi host", replace capacity devices in disk groups, exit Maintenance Mode, confirm that raw capacity has been increased, and then repeat on ESXi host one-by-one. D. "Shutdown ESXi host", and replace all capacity devices. Repeat this sequence one-by-one.
   Option C would allow you to perform a full data migration, which will move all data from the old capacity device to other devices. This option allows for the vSAN cluster to remain offline during the replacement process, and it allows the vSAN administrator to replace all the capacity devices at once.
   Option D would also allow you to replace all capacity devices at once, however, the data is not moved from the old capacity device to other devices, this option also allows for the vSAN cluster to remain offline during the replacement process and it allows the vSAN administrator to replace all the capacity devices at once.
   You can find more information on adding capacity to a vSAN cluster in the vSphere 7.0 documentation: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-70-vsphere-storage-vsan-70-upgrade-guide.pdf and also in VMware blog like: https://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2021/03/vsphere-7-0-update-1-vsan-7-0-update-1-general-availability.html The two approaches the vSAN administrator can use to complete this task are C. Enter Maintenance Mode, confirm that pre check is fine, select "Full data migration", "Shutdown ESXi host", replace all capacity devices, "Restart ESXi host", replace capacity devices in disk groups, exit Maintenance Mode, confirm that raw capacity has been increased, and then repeat on ESXi host one-by-one and D. "Shutdown ESXi host", and replace all capacity devices. Repeat this sequence one-by-one. Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/7.0/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-C1E7F9A5-7F5E-4E7E-A012-2F0F19A3F0A4.html
    
   NEW QUESTION 26
   An administrator is preparing maintenance on a host in a vSAN cluster, and the maintenance is expected to take less than one hour. The administrator is considering using the "Full Data Migration" but understands that this can be time consuming and also has additional capacity and performance considerations.
   Which action would alleviate these concerns?

• A. Use maintenance mode with "Ensure Accessibly", and increase the vSAN object repair timer to more than one hour.
• B. Use maintenance mode with "No Data Migration".
• C. Take an outage window when users are less likely to be working.
• D. Use maintenance mode with "Ensure Accessibility".

Answer: B
Explanation:
According to VMware's documentation, the "No Data Migration" option for maintenance mode should be used when the expected maintenance time is less than one hour. This option will allow the administrator to complete their maintenance without having to wait for a full data migration, which can be time consuming and also has additional capacity and performance considerations. It is important to note that this option will not guarantee the same level of availability as the other options, so it should only be used when the expected maintenance time is less than one hour.
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NEW QUESTION 27
A vSAN administrator notices the VMware Skyline Health: Network Latency Check reports indicate three hosts are non-compliant.
Which action should the vSAN administrator take?

• A. Place the noncompliant hosts into an isolated network.
• B. Reboot the noncompliant hosts one at a time.
• C. Check VMKNICs, uplinks. VLANs. physical switches, and associated settings.
• D. Rerun the VMware Skyline Health: vSAN Cluster Partition report.

Answer: D
 
NEW QUESTION 28
A vSAN administrator is deploying a four node vSAN cluster to a new work location. To help with configuration and consistency, the vSAN administrator plans to use Ouickstart Which two prerequisites must be met prior to taking this action? (Choose two.)

• A. Hosts are running 6.0 U2 or later.
• B. vDS must be created tor vSAN and management traffic.
• C. vCenter is running on one of the four nodes.
• D. Hosts do not have existing vSAN or network configurations.
• E. DRS and HA have been enabled.

Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Quickstart is a configuration tool that guides vSAN administrators through the process of creating a vSAN cluster from scratch. It is available in vCenter Server 6.0 U2 and later versions. Therefore, before using Quickstart, it is important to ensure that all hosts are running 6.0 U2 or later. The hosts should not have any existing vSAN or network configurations, to avoid any conflicts with the new vSAN cluster being deployed. This is explained in VMware vSAN 6.7 documentation in the section "Creating a vSAN Cluster using the Quickstart Configuration" Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/vsphere-vsan-67-admin-guide/GUID-7A6C9F9C-1F74-4E44-8848-B1A2FBC6F2F6.html
 
NEW QUESTION 29
A vSAN cluster has the following configuration:

• 4 hosts with 1 disk group per host

• Each disk group contains 1 cache device and 7 capacity devices
  What are two ways to increase the vSAN datastore storage capacity? (Choose two.)

• A. Replace a cache device with a larger cache device.

• B. Add a host to the cluster.

• C. Add a capacity drive to each disk group.

• D. Add a cache device to each disk group.

• E. Add a disk group to each host.

Answer: C,E
Explanation:
https://configmax.vmware.com/guest?vmwareproduct=vSphere&release=vSphere 6.7&categories=7-0 According to the VMware Official Guide, "Adding capacity drives increases the storage capacity of the disk group and the vSAN datastore. Adding a disk group to each host increases the storage capacity of the vSAN datastore."
 
NEW QUESTION 30
......
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NEW QUESTION 31
During which of the following steps in a business process does a dynamic modification rule change severely.

• A. The creation of a inspection Lot
• B. The creation of a certification
• C. Creation of a batch
• D. The creation of a notification

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 32
The Software Deployment Manager (SDM) runs in its own Java Virtual Machine.

• A. Correct
• B. Incorrect

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 33
Codes from different code groups within the same catalog type can be grouped together in selected sets.

• A. Incorrect
• B. Correct

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 34
Which statements are correct? (More than one answer is true.)

• A. An inspection method can also be directly created in a task list.
• B. No code groups from catalogs can be assigned to an inspection method.
• C. Code groups and codes from one catalog type can be grouped together in selected sets.
• D. Documents can be assigned to an inspection method.
• E. Codes from selected sets can be used for results recording.

Answer: A,C,D
 
NEW QUESTION 35
......

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NEW QUESTION 28
A customer with an existing Communication Manager 6 (CM) duplex solution with g4bos and isdn trunks at their main location, is adding some remote sites with G430 gateways and local ISDN trunks for survivability and local calling. They will be inter-connecting them with an MPLS network with limited bandwidth to these remote sites. They want a network design that will restrict voice traffic to a defined level with the ability to overflow to the PSTN.
What would be the minimum network region design look like?

• A. One IP network region per remote location, two Intervening network regions, G.729 inter-region codec, implement Call Admission Control (CAC)
• B. One IP network region per remote location, connect each remote network region directly to the main site's network region, G.729 inter-region codec, implement Call Admission Control (CAC) with Inter-gateway Alternate Routing (IGAR)
• C. One IP network region per remote location, one intervening network region, G.729 inter-region codec, implement Call Admission Control (CAC) with Inter-gateway Alternate Routing (IGAR)
• D. Two IP network regions per remote location, (one for the gateway, and one for the telephones), one intervening network region, G.729 inter-region codec,implement Call Admission Control (CAC) with Inter-gateway Alternate Routing (IGAR)

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 29
You are trying to determine how many Basic and Mainstream licenses are needed to support a proposal for Avaya IX Messaging.
Which feature requires a Mainstream license?

• A. Multiple Telephone User Interfaces (TUIs)
• B. Distribution lists
• C. Full synchronization with 0365 email applications
• D. Multiple greetings

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 30
A technician is adding 1100 users to an Avaya Aura solution. There is only bandwidth for 30kbps calls per user.
Which audio codec will provide the highest fidelity that the network will support?

• A. G.722
• B. G.729
• C. G.711
• D. H.264

Answer: A
 
NEW QUESTION 31
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NEW QUESTION 26
You have the Power BI workspaces shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-portal-workspaces
 
NEW QUESTION 27
Note: This question is part of a scries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have the Power Bl data model shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

Users indicate that when they build reports from the data model, the reports take a long time to load.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the load times of the reports.
Solution: You recommend creating a perspective that contains the commonly used fields.
Does this meet the goal?

• A. Yes
• B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead denormalize For Performance.
Even though it might mean storing a bit of redundant data, schema denormalization can sometimes provide better query performance. The only question then becomes is the extra space used worth the performance benefit.
 
NEW QUESTION 28
You need to create the customized Power Bl usage reporting. The Usage Metrics Report dataset has already been created. The solution must minimize development and administrative effort.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

**Answer: **
Explanation:

1 - From powerbi.com, create a new report..
2 - Add a report measure
3 - Add visuals to the report
4 - Publish the report to the Sales Analytics workspace
 
NEW QUESTION 29
You are using DAX Studio to analyze a slow-running report query. You need to identify inefficient join
operations in the query. What should you review?

• A. the query history
• B. the query statistics
• C. the query plan
• D. the server timings

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 30
You have an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen 2 container that stores more than 300,000 files representing hourly telemetry dat a. The data is organized in folders by the year, month, and day according to when the telemetry was captured.
You have the following query in Power Query Editor.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

**Answer: **
Explanation:

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerquery-m/table-selectrows
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-lake-store/data-lake-store-comparison-with-blob-storage
 
NEW QUESTION 31
......

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NEW QUESTION 24
Your customer is using a hybrid variable pay template because Employee Central (EC) has NOT been implemented within the entire company. How will you make sure that eligibility rules apply to both (EC and non-EC) target populations? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

• A. Use Bonus Plan Eligibility.
• B. Enable global eligibility rule.
• C. Configure multiple rules by EC entity for the program.
• D. Use Manager Form Eligibility.
• E. Include inactive employees.

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 25
In which customer scenarios are multiple bonus plans required in a single program? Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

• A. In some countries, the bonus is multiplicative, while in others it is additive.
• B. The bonuses of different groups of employees are affected by different business goals.
• C. There are only two business goals, but the weighting of the goals varies by employee grade.
• D. There is a single business goal applied to Manufacturing and Engineering, but HR is excluded from the bonus process.

Answer: B,C
 
NEW QUESTION 26
The employee history data file import process was completed but returned with errors. Given the information in the screenshot, which column is causing the error message?

• A. The endDate column is in mm/dd/yyyy format.
• B. The tgtPct column is using decimals.
• C. The basis column is using commas.
• D. The country column shows a code rather than a label.

Answer: C
 
NEW QUESTION 27
A customer updated an employee's assignment date using the employee history editor, but the proration amount remained the same in the worksheet. How can you correct this?

• A. Delete the existing worksheet and then launch a new set.
• B. Calculate Bonus and Update worksheets.
• C. Update Goal Result and Update worksheets.
• D. Delete the user from their worksheet and add them back into the worksheet.

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 28
Where do you set the display order of the business goals?

• A. Business goals file
• B. Business goal weights file
• C. Bonus plan file
• D. Design Worksheet

Answer: B
 
NEW QUESTION 29
......